A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority?
Respiratory rate 10/min
2+ deep-tendon reflexes
3+ pedal edema
Urinary output 35 mL/hr
The Correct Answer is A
A. Respiratory rate 10/min. This is the priority finding because it suggests respiratory depression, a serious side effect of magnesium sulfate therapy. Magnesium acts as a CNS depressant, and a respiratory rate below 12/min is a potential sign of magnesium toxicity, which can lead to respiratory arrest if not promptly addressed.
B. 2+ deep-tendon reflexes. This indicates normal neuromuscular function and is actually a reassuring finding in a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Reflexes are typically monitored to detect early signs of toxicity, and a 2+ rating means the dose is likely therapeutic.
C. 3+ pedal edema. While significant, pedal edema is a common feature of preeclampsia and not directly related to magnesium sulfate toxicity. It should be monitored but does not require immediate action compared to respiratory compromise.
D. Urinary output 35 mL/hr. This is slightly above the minimum acceptable output of 30 mL/hr, indicating the kidneys are excreting adequately. While magnesium is excreted renally and output must be monitored, this value does not indicate an acute risk.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Hydrocodone. This is an opioid analgesic appropriate for moderate to severe pain, such as a pain rating of 7/10. It is commonly used for acute pain management in cases like fractures and provides effective relief when non-opioids are insufficient.
B. Acetaminophen. While useful for mild to moderate pain, acetaminophen alone is likely inadequate for severe pain like that associated with a fracture rated 7/10.
C. Fentanyl. Fentanyl is a potent opioid used for severe or chronic pain, often in controlled settings such as surgery or cancer care. For an acute fracture, hydrocodone is typically preferred unless pain is extreme or uncontrolled.
D. Aspirin. Aspirin is primarily used for mild pain or anti-inflammatory purposes and is not appropriate as a first-line agent for severe pain. Additionally, it may increase the risk of bleeding, which is a consideration in trauma cases.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Shows perfectionism. Clients with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) are characterized by perfectionism, a preoccupation with orderliness, control, and rules, and a need for mental and interpersonal control, often at the expense of flexibility and efficiency.
B. Takes advantage of others. This behavior is more typical of antisocial personality disorder, not OCPD. Clients with OCPD tend to be highly conscientious, not manipulative or exploitative.
C. Irritability. While clients with OCPD may become frustrated or anxious if things are not done their way, chronic irritability is not a hallmark feature of the disorder.
D. Impulsivity. Impulsivity is more commonly associated with borderline or antisocial personality disorders. In contrast, clients with OCPD are typically rigid, cautious, and rule-bound.
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