A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority?

Respiratory rate 10/min

2+ deep-tendon reflexes

3+ pedal edema

Urinary output 35 mL/hr

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Respiratory rate 10/min. This is the priority finding because it suggests respiratory depression, a serious side effect of magnesium sulfate therapy. Magnesium acts as a CNS depressant, and a respiratory rate below 12/min is a potential sign of magnesium toxicity, which can lead to respiratory arrest if not promptly addressed.
B. 2+ deep-tendon reflexes. This indicates normal neuromuscular function and is actually a reassuring finding in a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Reflexes are typically monitored to detect early signs of toxicity, and a 2+ rating means the dose is likely therapeutic.
C. 3+ pedal edema. While significant, pedal edema is a common feature of preeclampsia and not directly related to magnesium sulfate toxicity. It should be monitored but does not require immediate action compared to respiratory compromise.
D. Urinary output 35 mL/hr. This is slightly above the minimum acceptable output of 30 mL/hr, indicating the kidneys are excreting adequately. While magnesium is excreted renally and output must be monitored, this value does not indicate an acute risk.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. "I should visually monitor the client continuously when in mechanical restraints." Continuous visual monitoring is required to ensure the client’s safety, monitor for distress or injury, and assess the ongoing need for restraints. This is a key safety standard in the use of mechanical restraints.
B. "I should assess the client's skin integrity every 8 hours while in mechanical restraints." Skin integrity must be assessed much more frequently, typically every 15 to 30 minutes, to prevent injury or pressure-related complications while the client is restrained.
C. "I should expect the provider to evaluate the client within 4 hours of restraint application." For adults, a provider must evaluate the client within 1 hour of the initiation of mechanical restraints. A 4-hour delay does not meet safety or legal standards.
D. "I should ask the provider to write a prescription for mechanical restraints as needed." PRN (as-needed) prescriptions for restraints are not permitted. Each use must be justified, time-limited, and based on the client’s immediate behavior or condition.

A. An angiocatheter B. A 25-gauge needle C. A noncoring needle D. A butterfly needle

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. An angiocatheter. This is used for peripheral IV access, not for accessing implanted venous ports. It is not designed to penetrate the septum of a port safely or effectively.
B. A 25-gauge needle. This needle is too small and not suitable for accessing a venous port, as it may not deliver adequate flow and can damage the port's septum.
C. A noncoring needle. Also known as a Huber needle, this is the correct choice for accessing an implanted port. It has a deflected tip that prevents coring (removing pieces of the port’s septum), preserving the integrity of the port and reducing the risk of damage or infection.
D. A butterfly needle. These are typically used for short-term venous access or blood draws and are not appropriate for accessing an implanted port. They lack the design necessary to protect the septum of the device.

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A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority?

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