A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking oral contraceptives for the past 6 months. Which of the following findings should the nurse immediately report to the provider?
Weight gain 2.3 kg (5 lb)
Frequent nausea
Breast tenderness
Persistent headache
The Correct Answer is D
A. Weight gain 2.3 kg (5 lb): Mild weight gain can occur with oral contraceptive use and is generally not dangerous. This finding does not require immediate reporting.
B. Frequent nausea: Nausea is a common side effect, especially during the first few months of therapy. While bothersome, it is usually not an urgent concern unless severe or persistent.
C. Breast tenderness: Breast tenderness is a common, mild side effect of oral contraceptives and does not typically indicate a serious problem requiring immediate intervention.
D. Persistent headache: A new, persistent, or severe headache can indicate vascular complications, such as hypertension or increased risk of thromboembolism, which are serious adverse effects of oral contraceptives. This finding requires immediate reporting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Obtain filterless IV tubing: Blood transfusions require specialized IV tubing with an in-line filter to remove clots and debris. Using filterless tubing would increase the risk of transfusing particulate matter into the client’s bloodstream.
B. Place the blood in a warmer for 1 hr: Blood should only be warmed if specifically prescribed and done using an approved device immediately before administration. Prolonged warming increases the risk of bacterial growth and hemolysis.
C. Use a 24-gauge IV catheter: Packed RBCs should be administered through a larger-bore catheter (typically 18–20 gauge) to allow adequate flow and prevent hemolysis. A 24-gauge catheter is too small for efficient transfusion.
D. Prime IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride: Normal saline is the only compatible solution for priming and administering blood products. It prevents clotting and hemolysis while ensuring that the blood flows freely without interacting with other IV solutions.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Check the compatibility of cefazolin with the client's existing IV fluids: Compatibility is important to prevent precipitation or inactivation of the drug, but it should be done only after confirming the medication is safe for the client to receive.
B. Assess the IV for patency: Ensuring the IV line is patent is necessary before administration to avoid infiltration or extravasation, but it is not the first priority when preparing a first-time antibiotic dose.
C. Review the client's allergy history: Reviewing allergies is the first and most critical step, as cefazolin is a cephalosporin that can cause severe allergic reactions, particularly in clients with a history of beta-lactam (e.g., penicillin) allergy. Administering the drug without this check could cause life-threatening anaphylaxis.
D. Obtain the reconstituted antibiotic from the pharmacy: Securing the medication from the pharmacy is part of preparation, but this should only occur after confirming it is safe for the client to receive based on allergy status.
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