A nurse is assessing a client who had a vaginal delivery and notes that her fundus is firm, midline, and 2 cm below the umbilicus.
The nurse should document this finding as which of the following?
Normal involution
Subinvolution
Retained placenta
Endometritis
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. Normal involution.
This means that the uterus is returning to its pre-pregnancy size and position after delivery.
The fundus is the upper part of the uterus and it should be firm, midline, and gradually descend into the pelvis. A fundus that is 2 cm below the umbilicus at 4 hours postpartum is within the normal range.
Choice B. Subinvolution is wrong because it refers to a delayed or incomplete involution of the uterus.
This can result in prolonged bleeding, infection, or retained placental fragments. A fundus that is above the umbilicus, boggy, or displaced to one side may indicate subinvolution.
Choice C. Retained placenta is wrong because it means that some or all of the placenta remains in the uterus after delivery.
This can cause heavy bleeding, infection, or uterine atony. A fundus that is high, soft, or tender may indicate retained placenta.
Choice D. Endometritis is wrong because it means that the lining of the uterus is inflamed due to infection.
This can cause fever, foul-smelling lochia, pelvic pain, or uterine tenderness. A fundus that is enlarged, tender, or malodorous may indicate endometritis.
Normal ranges for fundal height after delivery are:
• Immediately after delivery:
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choiceA.
The nurse should instruct the client to avoid lifting anything heavier than the newborn for 6 weeks.This is because lifting heavy objects can strain the abdominal muscles and the incision site, and increase the risk of bleeding and infection.
ChoiceBis wrong because the nurse should advise the client to wait at least 4 to 6 weeks before resuming sexual intercourse.This is to allow the incision to heal and prevent infection and discomfort.
ChoiceCis wrong because the nurse should not recommend ibuprofen for pain relief as it can interfere with blood clotting and increase bleeding.The nurse should suggest acetaminophen or a prescribed analgesic instead.
ChoiceDis wrong because the nurse should not tell the client to report any foul-smelling vaginal discharge to the provider.
The client should expect some vaginal discharge (lochia) for several weeks after a cesarean delivery, which may have a mild odor.However, the nurse should instruct the client to report signs of infection such as fever, chills, redness, swelling, or increased pain at the incision site.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. A patient who is 34 weeks pregnant with a breech presentation and ruptured membranes.This is because breech presentation and ruptured membranes are both risk factors for umbilical cord prolapse, which is where the umbilical cord descends through the cervix and is alongside or below the presenting part of the fetus.This can cause fetal hypoxia and distress.
Choice A is wrong because a cephalic presentation and intact membranes are not risk factors for umbilical cord prolapse.
Choice B is wrong because although twins and ruptured membranes are risk factors for umbilical cord prolapse, the risk is lower than in choice D. Choice C is wrong because although a transverse lie is a risk factor for umbilical cord prolapse, the risk is lower than in choice D if the membranes are intact.
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