A nurse is assessing a client following the administration of an initial dose of captopril. Which of the following findings indicates an anaphylactic response?
Laryngeal edema
Fever
Hypertension
Arrhythmia
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Laryngeal edema is a classic sign of anaphylaxis, a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. It can lead to difficulty breathing and requires immediate medical attention. Anaphylaxis can occur with any medication, including captopril, especially on initial exposure.
Choice B reason: Fever is not typically a sign of anaphylaxis. While it can be a symptom of various infections or inflammatory processes, it is not indicative of an immediate hypersensitivity reaction.
Choice C reason: Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is not a sign of anaphylaxis. In fact, during an anaphylactic reaction, blood pressure often drops significantly, a condition known as anaphylactic shock.
Choice D reason: Arrhythmia, or an irregular heartbeat, can be associated with various cardiac conditions but is not a specific indicator of anaphylaxis. While severe allergic reactions can affect heart rate, they are more likely to cause hypotension than arrhythmia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who has taken a high dose of insulin is at significant risk for hypoglycemia. In type 1 diabetes, the body does not produce insulin, so insulin therapy is essential for controlling blood glucose levels. However, if the dose of insulin is too high relative to the patient's dietary intake or physical activity level, it can lead to a rapid decrease in blood glucose levels, resulting in hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is defined as a blood glucose level less than 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L) and can cause symptoms such as confusion, sweating, weakness, and in severe cases, seizures or loss of consciousness.
Choice B reason: A client with type 2 diabetes who has not taken any medication may have elevated blood glucose levels but is not typically at immediate risk for hypoglycemia unless they are taking medications that lower blood glucose. Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance, and while medication can help manage it, skipping medication does not usually result in hypoglycemia unless other factors are at play.
Choice C reason: An older adult client taking an antibiotic for an infection is not generally at risk for hypoglycemia unless the antibiotic interacts with other medications that the client is taking for diabetes management. Antibiotics themselves do not typically cause hypoglycemia.
Choice D reason: A client who has metabolic syndrome and is taking a statin drug to lower cholesterol levels is not at direct risk for hypoglycemia from the statin medication. Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of conditions that increase the risk for heart disease, stroke, and type 2 diabetes. While statins are used to lower cholesterol levels, they do not have a direct impact on blood glucose levels that would lead to hypoglycemia.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A headache following a grade 1 concussion, while requiring monitoring, does not typically necessitate immediate proximity to the nurses' station. Grade 1 concussions are considered mild and usually do not involve loss of consciousness.
Choice B reason: A client who has experienced brain death and is awaiting organ procurement will not benefit from being close to the nurses' station due to the irreversible nature of brain death. The care for such a client is focused on maintaining organ viability for transplantation.
Choice C reason: A client with a score of 10 on the Glasgow Coma Scale following a motor vehicle crash should be placed closest to the nurses' station. A GCS score of 10 indicates a moderate level of impairment in consciousness and potentially unstable vital signs, requiring close monitoring and rapid nursing intervention.
Choice D reason: A score of 0 on the NIH Stroke Scale indicates no observable neurological deficit. Clients with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) and a score of 0 would require less intensive observation compared to those with higher scores or other acute neurological injuries.
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