A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who took three nitroglycerin tablets sublingually for chest pain. The client reports relief from the chest pain but now is experiencing a headache. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

"A headache is an expected side effect of the medication."

"A headache is an indication of an allergy to the medication."

"A headache is likely due to the anxiety about the chest pain."

"A headache indicates tolerance to the medication."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason : Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory effects, which can cause blood vessels to expand, leading to headaches. Patients should be informed that this is a common reaction and can be managed with over-the-counter pain relievers if necessary¹²³⁴.

Choice B reason : A headache is not typically an indication of an allergy to nitroglycerin. Allergic reactions would more likely present with symptoms such as rash, itching, or difficulty breathing.

Choice C reason : While anxiety can cause headaches, in this context, the headache is more likely a direct side effect of the nitroglycerin, especially since it occurred after taking the medication and the chest pain was relieved.

Choice D reason : Tolerance to medication refers to a reduced response to a drug over time, requiring higher doses to achieve the same effect. A headache after taking nitroglycerin does not indicate tolerance; it is a known side effect of the drug.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason : This statement is misleading. While heparin does need to reach a therapeutic level to be effective, it does not directly dissolve existing clots. Heparin's primary action is to prevent the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots by inhibiting certain factors in the coagulation cascade.

Choice B reason : While a pharmacist can provide detailed information about medications, it is the nurse's responsibility to educate and inform the client about the effects of their treatment. Therefore, this response would not be appropriate.

Choice C reason : This is the most accurate response. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of fibrin, which is essential for clot formation. It does not have the ability to dissolve existing clots but can prevent new ones from forming and existing ones from getting larger.

Choice D reason : Oral medications such as warfarin or direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) may be used after heparin to maintain anticoagulation; however, they also do not dissolve clots. The body's natural fibrinolytic system is responsible for breaking down clots over time.

A. Abdominal distension B. Jugular venous distention C. Dependent edema D. Hacking cough

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason : Abdominal distension is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure due to fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity. Left-sided heart failure primarily affects the lungs, leading to respiratory symptoms¹.

Choice B reason : Jugular venous distention is typically a sign of right-sided heart failure, indicating increased pressure in the right atrium and venous system. It is not a primary symptom of left-sided heart failure¹.

Choice C reason : Dependent edema, or swelling in the lower extremities, is also more indicative of right-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates due to poor venous return. In left-sided heart failure, fluid backs up into the lungs rather than the extremities¹.

Choice D reason : A hacking cough, especially when lying down, is a symptom of left-sided heart failure, as fluid backs up into the lungs causing pulmonary congestion. This can lead to coughing and shortness of breath, particularly during exertion or when lying flat¹.

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A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who took three nitroglycerin tablets sublingually for chest pain. The client reports relief from the chest pain but now is experiencing a headache. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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