A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a 20-year-old client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and requests an amniocentesis to determine the sex of the fetus. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"Your provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling to determine the sex of your baby."
"This procedure determines if your baby has genetic or congenital disorders."
"We can schedule the procedure for later today if you'd like."
"You cannot have an amniocentesis until you are at least 35 years of age."
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. "Your provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling to determine the sex of your baby." Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is a different prenatal test that involves taking a sample of chorionic villi for genetic testing, not determining the sex of the fetus.
B. "This procedure determines if your baby has genetic or congenital disorders."
Correct answer.
Amniocentesis is a prenatal test used to diagnose genetic disorders or chromosomal abnormalities, not to determine the sex of the fetus.
C. "We can schedule the procedure for later today if you'd like." Amniocentesis is not typically scheduled on the same day as requested. It requires prior preparation and scheduling.
D. "You cannot have an amniocentesis until you are at least 35 years of age." There's no age restriction for amniocentesis based solely on maternal age. It's typically recommended for women at higher risk for genetic conditions, regardless of age.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","G","H"]
Explanation
A. Peripheral edema 2+ bilateral lower extremities - Peripheral edema is common postpartum and does not typically require immediate follow-up unless it is associated with other concerning signs or symptoms.
B. Blood pressure 136/6 mm Hg - The blood pressure provided appears to be incorrect, as the diastolic pressure is unusually low. However, given the options provided, blood pressure is not explicitly mentioned in the scenario as a critical factor requiring immediate follow-up.
C. Lateral deviation of the uterus - Lateral deviation of the uterus suggests uterine atony, a potential complication of postpartum hemorrhage, requiring immediate follow-up and intervention to prevent further complications.
D. Pain rating of 3 on a scale of 0 to 10 - While increased pain should be addressed, it does not necessarily indicate an emergency situation requiring immediate follow-up compared to other findings such as uterine deviation or excessive bleeding.
E. Deep tendon reflexes 1+ - This finding is within normal limits and does not require immediate follow-up.
F. Breasts soft - Soft breasts are expected in the postpartum period and do not typically require immediate follow-up unless associated with other concerning signs or symptoms.
G. Large amount of lochia rubra - A large amount of bright red lochia could indicate postpartum hemorrhage, necessitating immediate follow-up and intervention to prevent further complications.
H. Uterine tone soft - Soft uterine tone suggests uterine atony, which is a potential complication requiring immediate follow-up and intervention to prevent excessive bleeding.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Epigastric discomfort is not typically associated with pyelonephritis. It may be a symptom of other conditions such as gastrointestinal issues or preeclampsia.
B. Flank pain is a common manifestation of pyelonephritis, which is an infection of the kidneys.
Clients with pyelonephritis often experience pain in the flank area, which is located between the lower ribs and the pelvis, on one or both sides of the body.
C. A temperature of 37.7°C (99.8°F) may indicate a low-grade fever, which can be present in pyelonephritis due to the body's immune response to infection.
D. Abdominal cramping may occur with various conditions during pregnancy but is not specific to pyelonephritis.
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