A nurse in a provider's clinic is assessing a client who takes sublingual nitroglycerin for stable angina. The client reports getting a headache each time he takes the medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

"Take only one dose of nitroglycerin to reduce the risk of getting a headache."

"There's nothing that can be done to relieve the headaches that nitroglycerin causes."

"We will ask the provider to prescribe a diﬀerent medication for you."

"Try taking a mild analgesic to relieve the headache."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that relaxes smooth muscle in blood vessels and reduces myocardial oxygen demand. It is used to treat and prevent angina atacks. A common side eﬀect of nitroglycerin is headache, which is caused by cerebral vasodilation. The nurse should advise the client to take a mild analgesic, such as acetaminophen, to relieve the headache. The headache usually subsides with continued use of nitroglycerin.

The other options are not correct because:

"Take only one dose of nitroglycerin to reduce the risk of getting a headache." This statement is incorrect because it may compromise the eﬀectiveness of nitroglycerin in relieving angina. The client should follow the prescribed dosage and frequency of nitroglycerin, which is usually one tablet every 5 minutes for up to three doses, as needed for chest pain.

"There's nothing that can be done to relieve the headaches that nitroglycerin causes." This statement is incorrect because it is discouraging and dismissive of the client's concern. The nurse should acknowledge the client's

discomfort and oﬀer suggestions for managing the side eﬀect, such as taking a mild analgesic or lying down in a dark room.

"We will ask the provider to prescribe a diﬀerent medication for you." This statement is incorrect because it implies that nitroglycerin is not suitable for the client and may cause unnecessary anxiety or confusion. The nurse should explain that nitroglycerin is an eﬀective and safe medication for angina and that the headache is a common and transient side eﬀect that can be managed with simple measures. The nurse should also inform the client that there are other forms of nitroglycerin, such as patches or sprays, that may have less headache-inducing eﬀects. However, changing the medication or the route of administration should be done only after consulting with the provider.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Frothy sputum is a sign of left-sided heart failure, due to the pulmonary congestion and impaired gas exchange. The sputum may be pink-tinged or blood-streaked, indicating pulmonary edema.

a. Dependent edema is more likely to be seen in clients who have right-sided heart failure, due to the increased venous pressure and ﬂuid retention. The edema is usually symmetrical and aﬀects the lower extremities, abdomen, and sometimes the face.

c. Nocturnal polyuria is not a specific finding of left-sided heart failure, but it may occur in clients who have renal impairment, diabetes mellitus, or diuretic therapy.

d. Jugular distention is another sign of right-sided heart failure, due to the increased central venous pressure and backward ﬂow of blood into the superior vena cava. It is visible as a bulging of the neck veins, especially when the client is in a semi-Fowler's position.

A. Hold the client's arms and legs from moving. B. Place the client back in bed. C. Place the client on his side. D. Insert a tongue blade in the client's mouth.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Placing the client on his side is an essential action to take during a seizure, as it can prevent airway obstruction and aspiration. The client should be placed on his side, preferably in a lateral recumbent position, to allow saliva and secretions to drain from the mouth.

Holding the client's arms and legs from moving is not appropriate, as it can cause injury, increase agitation, or prolong the seizure. The client should be allowed to move freely during a seizure, but supported and guided away from hazards.

Placing the client back in bed is not necessary, as it can cause harm or delay care. The client should be left on the ﬂoor, unless it is unsafe or uncomfortable, and padded with pillows or blankets to protect from injury.

Inserting a tongue blade in the client's mouth is not advisable, as it can cause oral trauma, choking, or damage to the teeth. The client should not have anything inserted into his mouth during a seizure, as he cannot swallow or bite his tongue. The nurse should ensure that the client's airway is clear and patent.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A nurse in a provider's clinic is assessing a client who takes sublingual nitroglycerin for stable angina. The client reports getting a headache each time he takes the medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client on the ﬂoor having a seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for an exercise stress test. Which of the following comments made by the client should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further teaching?

A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure and is taking digoxin daily. The client refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A nurse is caring for a client who has peripheral vascular disease and reports difficulty sleeping because of cold feet. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse take to promote the client's comfort?

A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports dyspnea and fatigue. Physical assessment reveals tachycardia and weak peripheral pulses. The nurse should recognize these findings as manifestations of which of the following conditions?

A nurse in a provider's clinic is assessing a client who takes sublingual nitroglycerin for stable angina. The client reports getting a headache each time he takes the medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

A nurse suspects a client who has myasthenia gravis is experiencing a myasthenic crisis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

A nurse is assessing a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?