A nurse in a provider's clinic is assessing a client who takes sublingual nitroglycerin for stable angina. The client reports getting a headache each time he takes the medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

"Take only one dose of nitroglycerin to reduce the risk of getting a headache."

"There's nothing that can be done to relieve the headaches that nitroglycerin causes."

"We will ask the provider to prescribe a diﬀerent medication for you."

"Try taking a mild analgesic to relieve the headache."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that relaxes smooth muscle in blood vessels and reduces myocardial oxygen demand. It is used to treat and prevent angina atacks. A common side eﬀect of nitroglycerin is headache, which is caused by cerebral vasodilation. The nurse should advise the client to take a mild analgesic, such as acetaminophen, to relieve the headache. The headache usually subsides with continued use of nitroglycerin.

The other options are not correct because:

"Take only one dose of nitroglycerin to reduce the risk of getting a headache." This statement is incorrect because it may compromise the eﬀectiveness of nitroglycerin in relieving angina. The client should follow the prescribed dosage and frequency of nitroglycerin, which is usually one tablet every 5 minutes for up to three doses, as needed for chest pain.

"There's nothing that can be done to relieve the headaches that nitroglycerin causes." This statement is incorrect because it is discouraging and dismissive of the client's concern. The nurse should acknowledge the client's

discomfort and oﬀer suggestions for managing the side eﬀect, such as taking a mild analgesic or lying down in a dark room.

"We will ask the provider to prescribe a diﬀerent medication for you." This statement is incorrect because it implies that nitroglycerin is not suitable for the client and may cause unnecessary anxiety or confusion. The nurse should explain that nitroglycerin is an eﬀective and safe medication for angina and that the headache is a common and transient side eﬀect that can be managed with simple measures. The nurse should also inform the client that there are other forms of nitroglycerin, such as patches or sprays, that may have less headache-inducing eﬀects. However, changing the medication or the route of administration should be done only after consulting with the provider.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Frothy sputum is a sign of left-sided heart failure, due to the pulmonary congestion and impaired gas exchange. The sputum may be pink-tinged or blood-streaked, indicating pulmonary edema.

a. Dependent edema is more likely to be seen in clients who have right-sided heart failure, due to the increased venous pressure and ﬂuid retention. The edema is usually symmetrical and aﬀects the lower extremities, abdomen, and sometimes the face.

c. Nocturnal polyuria is not a specific finding of left-sided heart failure, but it may occur in clients who have renal impairment, diabetes mellitus, or diuretic therapy.

d. Jugular distention is another sign of right-sided heart failure, due to the increased central venous pressure and backward ﬂow of blood into the superior vena cava. It is visible as a bulging of the neck veins, especially when the client is in a semi-Fowler's position.

A. Radial pulse in the left arm B. Radial pulse in the right arm C. Brachial pulse in the left arm D. Brachial pulse in the right arm

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The radial pulse in the left arm can be palpated after a cardiac catheterization with a left antecubital insertion site. Although the focus is typically on the site of insertion and the brachial pulse, the radial pulse in the left arm can still provide useful information about circulation in that limb.
B. The radial pulse in the right arm is not pertinent because the catheterization was performed on the left side.
C. The brachial pulse in the left arm is indeed important to assess, but palpating the radial pulse in the left arm is also valid to check for circulation.
D. The brachial pulse in the right arm is not relevant in this scenario, as it does not relate to the site of catheterization.

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A nurse in a provider's clinic is assessing a client who takes sublingual nitroglycerin for stable angina. The client reports getting a headache each time he takes the medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer is B

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The nurse is evaluating a client who had a cardiac catheterization with a left antecubital insertion site. Which of the following pulses should the nurse palpate?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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