A nurse has received an order to administer Morphine 5mg IV once immediately.
The available concentration is 2.5 mg/mL. How many mL of morphine should the nurse prepare for administration?
0.5 mL
1 mL
2 mL
4 mL
The Correct Answer is C
Step 1: The order is to administer Morphine 5mg IV once immediately. The available concentration is 2.5 mg/mL. To find out how many mL of morphine the nurse should prepare for administration, we need to divide the ordered dose by the available concentration.
Step 2: Calculation: 5 mg ÷ 2.5 mg/mL = 2 mL So, the nurse should prepare 2 mL of morphine for administration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Given the client’s symptoms and the fact that she is 34 weeks pregnant, the client is most likely experiencing preeclampsia. One of the severe complications of preeclampsia is eclampsia, which is characterized by the onset of seizures. Therefore, implementing seizure precautions would be an appropriate action for the nurse to take. The nurse should monitor the following parameters to assess the client’s progress: Blood pressure readings: Regular monitoring can help detect any sudden increases, which could indicate worsening preeclampsia. Urine protein levels: Protein in the urine is a common sign of preeclampsia and should be monitored regularly.
Choice B rationale
Checking deep tendon reflexes every hour could be part of the care plan for a client with preeclampsia. Hyperreflexia can be a sign of worsening preeclampsia and impending seizure activity.
Choice C rationale
Methyldopa is a medication that can be used to control blood pressure in pregnant women. However, the question does not provide information that the client has been prescribed this medication.
Choice D rationale
Monitoring neurologic status is important in a client with preeclampsia due to the risk of eclampsia, which can cause seizures and other neurologic complications. However, implementing seizure precautions is a more immediate action to address the client’s condition.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. In a cephalic (head-down) presentation, fetal heart tones are typically heard below the umbilicus.
B. A posterior position refers to the fetal back facing the mother's back, but it does not affect the heart tone location significantly.
C. A transverse lie would place the fetal heart tones at the lateral sides of the abdomen, not above the umbilicus.
D. In a frank breech position (buttocks presenting first), fetal heart tones are usually heard above the umbilicus, as the fetal head is positioned in the upper uterus.
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