A nurse has delegated the application of wrist restraints to an assistive personnel (AP) for a confused patient. The AP has padded the wrist restraints and secured the straps to the bed frame with a double knot.
What action should the nurse take?
Check that three fingers will fit beneath the restraints.
Retie the restraint straps with a slipknot.
Retie the restraint straps to the side rails.
Remove the padding under the wrist restraints.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
While it is important to ensure that restraints are not too tight, the issue in this scenario is not related to the tightness of the restraints.
Choice B rationale
Restraints should be tied with a slipknot to allow for quick release if necessary. A double knot may be difficult to untie quickly in an emergency.
Choice C rationale
Restraint straps should not be tied to the side rails. If the side rails are lowered, the restraints could become too loose.
Choice D rationale
The padding under the wrist restraints should not be removed. The padding helps to prevent skin damage and increase the comfort of the patient.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Checking that the client’s restraints are secured with a half-bow knot is a good practice. This type of knot is secure but can be easily untied, which is important for quick removal of the restraints if necessary.
Choice B rationale
Requesting that the provider prescribe the restraints as PRN is not a good practice. Restraints should only be used as a last resort and must be ordered by a healthcare provider. The order must specify the reason for the restraints and the duration of use.
Choice C rationale
Ensuring that the client’s wrists are padded is a good practice. Padding helps to prevent skin breakdown and nerve damage.
Choice D rationale
Loosening the restraints once every 4 hours is not a good practice. Restraints should be removed or loosened every 2 hours to allow for skin care and assessment, range of motion exercises, and to check for signs of injury.
Choice E rationale
Documenting client care every 15 minutes is a good practice. This includes documenting the client’s behavior, the type and location of restraints, the frequency of care (at least every 2 hours), and the client’s response to the restraints.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Full-thickness tissue loss extending to underlying support structures such as muscle, tendon, or bone is characteristic of a stage 4 pressure ulcer, not a stage 312.
Choice B rationale
A stage 3 pressure ulcer involves full-thickness skin loss and may appear as a deep crater. There may be damage to or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue that may extend down to, but not through, underlying fascia. This description matches the statement in Choice B, making it the correct answer.
Choice C rationale
A shallow, ruptured or intact skin blister without slough is more indicative of a stage 2 pressure ulcer. In a stage 2 pressure ulcer, there is partial-thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
Choice D rationale
Unbroken skin with un-blancheable erythema is characteristic of a stage 1 pressure ulcer, not a stage 3. In a stage 1 pressure ulcer, the skin is not broken, but it has redness that does not lighten (or blanch) when you press on it.
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