A newly admitted client asks. "Why do we need a unit schedule? I'm not going to these groups. I'm here to get some rest." Which is the most appropriate nursing response?
"Group therapy is an economical way of providing therapy to many clients concurrently."
"Group therapy is optional. You can go if you find the topic helpful and interesting."
Group therapy is mandatory. All clients must attend."
"The purpose of group therapy is to learn and practice new coping skills.
The Correct Answer is B
A. "Group therapy is an economical way of providing therapy to many clients concurrently.": While this statement may be true, it does not directly address the client's concerns or provide information about the voluntary nature of group participation.
B. "Group therapy is optional. You can go if you find the topic helpful and interesting.": This is the correct answer. Acknowledging the client's autonomy and providing information about the voluntary aspect of group therapy respects the client's preferences and promotes a collaborative therapeutic relationship.
C. "Group therapy is mandatory. All clients must attend.": This statement is more authoritarian and does not take into account the individual needs and preferences of the client. It is important to involve clients in decisions about their treatment whenever possible.
D. "The purpose of group therapy is to learn and practice new coping skills.": While this statement provides information about the purpose of group therapy, it does not directly address the client's question about the optional nature of attendance.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Correct. Using the proportion, the correct dose of fluoxetine (Prozac) for the prescribed 60 mg is 15 mL.
B. Incorrect. This is not the correct dose. The correct dose is 15 mL, not 20 mL.
C. Incorrect. This is not the correct dose. The correct dose is 15 mL, not 25 mL.
D. Incorrect. This is not the correct dose. The correct dose is 15 mL, not 10 mL.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Disturbed sensory perception: While the client is experiencing disturbed sensory perception (auditory hallucinations), the priority is to address the potential harm to others, which is better captured by the "Risk for violence: directed toward others" diagnosis.
B. Risk for violence: directed toward others: This diagnosis is the priority in this situation because the client is expressing homicidal thoughts directed toward a specific target (the president). Ensuring the safety of the client and others is the primary concern.
C. Altered thought processes: Altered thought processes may be evident in psychotic disorders, but the immediate concern is the risk of violence. Addressing altered thought processes would be part of the overall care plan, but it may not be the immediate priority in this case.
D. Risk for injury: While the client may be at risk for injury, the specific concern mentioned by the client is the potential harm to others (the president). Therefore, the "Risk for violence: directed toward others" diagnosis takes precedence.
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