A healthy 70-year-old patient has low hemoglobin levels and no signs of gastrointestinal bleeding.
The nurse recognizes which item is an effect of aging that could be the reason for the low hemoglobin level?
Low level of hepcidin.
Increase in iron-binding capacity.
Decrease in intestinal absorption of iron.
Decrease in erythropoietin secretion from the kidneys.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
A low level of hepcidin would not cause a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Hepcidin regulates iron homeostasis by inhibiting the absorption of iron from the intestines and promoting its storage in cells.
Choice B rationale:
An increase in iron-binding capacity typically occurs in conditions like iron deficiency anemia, where the body tries to increase its capacity to transport iron. This would not cause a low hemoglobin level in an otherwise healthy individual.
Choice C rationale:
Aging often leads to a decrease in the efficiency of nutrient absorption, including iron. This decrease in intestinal absorption of iron can result in low hemoglobin levels in elderly individuals. It's a common cause of anemia in the elderly population.
Choice D rationale:
Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys that stimulates the production of red blood cells. A decrease in erythropoietin secretion from the kidneys would lead to anemia, but it is not a typical effect of aging and is usually associated with kidney disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Triple-drug therapy is not the standard treatment for pernicious anemia after a gastrectomy. Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by vitamin B12 deficiency due to the absence of intrinsic factor, which is essential for vitamin B12 absorption.
Choice B rationale:
IV therapy is a broad term and does not specify the treatment for pernicious anemia. In the context of pernicious anemia, cobalamin replacement therapy administered via intramuscular injections is the preferred treatment.
Choice C rationale:
Quadruple-drug therapy is not a recognized treatment for pernicious anemia. The primary treatment for pernicious anemia involves cobalamin replacement therapy to address the vitamin B12 deficiency.
Choice D rationale:
Cobalamin replacement therapy is the appropriate treatment for pernicious anemia after a gastrectomy. Since the patient lacks intrinsic factor, which is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption, cobalamin replacement therapy bypasses the need for intrinsic factor and provides the necessary vitamin B12 directly.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Metabolic acidosis is characterized by low blood pH and low bicarbonate ion levels. In this case, the patient has a high bicarbonate ion level (25 mEq/L), indicating a compensatory response to respiratory acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis, on the other hand, would present with high pH and high bicarbonate ion levels.
Choice B rationale:
Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by high blood pH and high bicarbonate ion levels. The patient's bicarbonate ion level (25 mEq/L) is within the normal range, and the low pH and high PaCO2 (49 mm Hg) indicate respiratory acidosis, not metabolic alkalosis.
Choice C rationale:
Respiratory acidosis is characterized by low blood pH and high partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) levels. In this case, the patient has a low pH (7.29) and elevated PaCO2 (49 mm Hg), indicating respiratory acidosis. The elevated bicarbonate ion level (25 mEq/L) is a compensatory response. Respiratory alkalosis would present with high pH and low PaCO2 levels.
Choice D rationale:
Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by high blood pH and low PaCO2 levels. The patient's PaCO2 level is elevated (49 mm Hg), indicating respiratory acidosis, not alkalosis. The low pH (7.29) further supports the diagnosis of respiratory acidosis.
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