A healthcare professional is educating a patient on asthma. The professional tells the patient that the most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with which action?

Administration of broad spectrum antibiotics

Administration of drugs that decrease airway inflammation

Avoidance of the causative agent

Administration of drugs that reduce bronchospasm

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics: Broad-spectrum antibiotics are not a primary treatment for asthma, as asthma is an inflammatory condition and not primarily caused by bacterial infections. Antibiotics may be used for coexisting infections but are not the most successful initial treatment for chronic asthma.

B. Administration of drugs that decrease airway inflammation: While decreasing airway inflammation is important in managing asthma, the most successful long-term treatment begins with addressing the underlying causes and triggers. Reducing inflammation is part of the treatment strategy but is not the first action.

C. Avoidance of the causative agent: Avoiding the causative agent or trigger of asthma is the most successful initial treatment. Identifying and eliminating exposure to allergens or irritants, such as pollen, smoke, or pet dander, can significantly reduce the frequency and severity of asthma attacks, making it the foundational step in asthma management.

D. Administration of drugs that reduce bronchospasm: Medications that reduce bronchospasm, such as bronchodilators, are essential for immediate relief of asthma symptoms. However, they do not address the underlying inflammation and triggers, making avoidance of causative agents the most successful initial treatment for chronic asthma.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Antibody production against the offending fungi is delayed by the patient's age and the virulence of the organism: In older adults, the immune response may be slower or less effective due to age-related changes in the immune system. The virulence of Histoplasma capsulatum can also contribute to the severity of the infection, making it more difficult for the immune system to mount an effective response quickly, which explains the symptoms of fever, nausea, and vomiting.

B. Macrophages are able to remove the offending fungi from the bloodstream but can't destroy them: While macrophages play a crucial role in the immune response to fungi, in the case of histoplasmosis, they often engulf the fungi but may struggle to completely eradicate them, especially in immunocompromised individuals or the elderly. However, this option does not fully explain the delayed symptoms associated with the patient's age and the organism's virulence.

C. Spore inhalation initiates an autoimmune response that produces the associated symptoms: Histoplasmosis is caused by inhaling spores of Histoplasma capsulatum, but the symptoms are not the result of an autoimmune response. Instead, the immune system's attempt to combat the infection leads to the clinical manifestations, not an autoimmune process.

D. Toxin production by Histoplasma capsulatum is triggering an immune response: Histoplasma capsulatum does not produce toxins that directly trigger an immune response. Instead, the immune response is primarily due to the presence of the fungi themselves and the inflammatory response they provoke, which leads to the associated symptoms of the infection.

A. By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia B. By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction C. By stimulating the sympathetic nervous system D. By reducing the contractility of the myocardium

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia: Angiotensin II does not directly cause dysrhythmias through hyperkalemia. While hyperkalemia can lead to dysrhythmias, angiotensin II primarily acts as a vasoconstrictor and does not directly influence potassium levels.

B. By increasing peripheral vasoconstriction: Angiotensin II increases peripheral vascular resistance through vasoconstriction, which raises blood pressure. This increased resistance requires the heart to work harder to pump blood, thereby increasing the workload on the heart following a myocardial infarction.

C. By stimulating the sympathetic nervous system: Angiotensin II does stimulate the sympathetic nervous system, which can increase heart rate and contractility; however, the direct effect on increasing workload is more prominently due to peripheral vasoconstriction.

D. By reducing the contractility of the myocardium: Angiotensin II does not reduce contractility; in fact, it can enhance contractility in some contexts. It primarily increases the workload of the heart through vasoconstriction and increased afterload rather than reducing contractility.

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A healthcare professional is educating a patient on asthma. The professional tells the patient that the most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with which action?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Around three weeks after razing an old chicken house, a 71 year-old retired farmer has developed a fever, nausea and vomiting. After ruling out more common health problems, his care provider eventually made a diagnosis of histoplasmosis. Which physiological process is most likely taking place?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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