A female client with osteoporosis has been taking a weekly dose of oral risedronate for several weeks. The client calls the clinic nurse to report increasing “heartburn.” How should the nurse respond?

Ask the client to describe how she takes the medication.

Suggest use of an antacid two hours after the medication.

Remind the client to take the medication with plenty of water.

Advise the client to go to the nearest emergency department.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Asking the client to describe how she takes the medication is the most appropriate initial response by the nurse. “Heartburn” reported after taking risedronate raises concerns about potential esophageal irritation or gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) exacerbation. Understanding the client’s administration technique (e.g., whether she takes the medication with a full glass of water and remains upright for at least 30 minutes afterward) can help identify potential causes of the reported symptoms.

B) While suggesting the use of an antacid two hours after the medication may provide symptomatic relief, it does not address the underlying issue of potential esophageal irritation or GERD exacerbation related to risedronate administration. Moreover, if the client’s symptoms are due to esophageal irritation, using an antacid may mask the symptoms without addressing the cause.

C) Reminding the client to take the medication with plenty of water is a standard recommendation for bisphosphonate administration to minimize the risk of esophageal irritation and ensure proper drug absorption. However, since the client is already experiencing “heartburn,” further assessment of the client’s medication administration technique is warranted before providing this reminder.

D) Advising the client to go to the nearest emergency department is not appropriate at this stage, as the reported symptom of “heartburn” does not suggest an immediate life-threatening emergency. However, if the client experiences severe chest pain, difficulty swallowing, or signs of a severe allergic reaction (e.g., swelling of the face or throat, difficulty breathing), emergency medical attention would be necessary.

Therefore, the nurse should first assess the client’s medication administration technique to determine if improper administration may be contributing to the reported symptoms. Based on this assessment, appropriate interventions can be provided to address potential esophageal irritation or GERD exacerbation.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Calms spasm in the urinary tract: This statement is incorrect. Phenazopyridine primarily provides analgesic (pain-relieving) effects for the urinary tract but does not directly affect muscle spasms.

B) Provides an analgesic effect for irritated bladder mucosa: This is the correct response. Phenazopyridine is a urinary tract analgesic that acts locally to relieve pain, burning, and discomfort caused by irritation of the bladder mucosa. It does not treat the underlying infection but helps alleviate symptoms.

C) Eliminates urinary bacteria: This statement is incorrect. Phenazopyridine does not have antibacterial properties and does not eliminate urinary bacteria. Antibiotics are typically prescribed to treat urinary tract infections by targeting bacterial growth.

D) Use the medication after voiding after sexual intercourse: This statement is incorrect. While voiding after sexual intercourse can help reduce the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs), phenazopyridine is not specifically indicated for this purpose. It is used primarily for symptom relief in cases of cystitis or other urinary tract irritations.

A. Begin cardioversion to stabilize heart rhythm. B. Give digoxin by another route to slow absorption. C. Administer potassium to stabilize the heart rate. D. Check acid-base and electrolyte values.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Begin cardioversion to stabilize heart rhythm: Cardioversion is not the appropriate intervention for digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity can cause arrhythmias, but the initial action should be to assess and manage the underlying cause, rather than immediately proceeding to cardioversion.

B) Give digoxin by another route to slow absorption: Slowing the absorption of digoxin is not the appropriate action for treating digoxin toxicity. Instead, the focus should be on managing the existing toxicity and preventing further absorption by withholding additional doses.

C) Administer potassium to stabilize the heart rate: While potassium may be indicated as part of the treatment for digoxin toxicity, particularly if hypokalemia is contributing to the toxicity, it is not the initial action. The priority is to assess the client’s acid-base and electrolyte values to identify any abnormalities contributing to the toxicity.

D) Check acid-base and electrolyte values: This is the correct action. Digoxin toxicity can be exacerbated by electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, and hypomagnesemia. Therefore, assessing the client’s acid-base and electrolyte values is essential to identify and correct any abnormalities contributing to the toxicity. Once identified, appropriate interventions can be implemented to manage the toxicity and stabilize the client’s condition.

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A female client with osteoporosis has been taking a weekly dose of oral risedronate for several weeks. The client calls the clinic nurse to report increasing “heartburn.” How should the nurse respond?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with cystitis receives a prescription for phenazopyridine. Which information should the nurse explain to the client about its therapeutic effect?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is reviewing the client’s laboratory results. Based on a client’s serum digoxin level, the client is diagnosed with digoxin toxicity. Which action should the nurse expect to implement?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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