A female client with osteoporosis has been taking a weekly dose of oral risedronate for several weeks. The client calls the clinic nurse to report increasing “heartburn.” How should the nurse respond?
Ask the client to describe how she takes the medication.
Suggest use of an antacid two hours after the medication.
Remind the client to take the medication with plenty of water.
Advise the client to go to the nearest emergency department.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Asking the client to describe how she takes the medication is the most appropriate initial response by the nurse. “Heartburn” reported after taking risedronate raises concerns about potential esophageal irritation or gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) exacerbation. Understanding the client’s administration technique (e.g., whether she takes the medication with a full glass of water and remains upright for at least 30 minutes afterward) can help identify potential causes of the reported symptoms.
B) While suggesting the use of an antacid two hours after the medication may provide symptomatic relief, it does not address the underlying issue of potential esophageal irritation or GERD exacerbation related to risedronate administration. Moreover, if the client’s symptoms are due to esophageal irritation, using an antacid may mask the symptoms without addressing the cause.
C) Reminding the client to take the medication with plenty of water is a standard recommendation for bisphosphonate administration to minimize the risk of esophageal irritation and ensure proper drug absorption. However, since the client is already experiencing “heartburn,” further assessment of the client’s medication administration technique is warranted before providing this reminder.
D) Advising the client to go to the nearest emergency department is not appropriate at this stage, as the reported symptom of “heartburn” does not suggest an immediate life-threatening emergency. However, if the client experiences severe chest pain, difficulty swallowing, or signs of a severe allergic reaction (e.g., swelling of the face or throat, difficulty breathing), emergency medical attention would be necessary.
Therefore, the nurse should first assess the client’s medication administration technique to determine if improper administration may be contributing to the reported symptoms. Based on this assessment, appropriate interventions can be provided to address potential esophageal irritation or GERD exacerbation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) While measuring the client’s vital signs is a routine nursing intervention, the reported symptoms of confusion and blurred vision after receiving glipizide suggest the possibility of hypoglycemia. Vital signs may not provide immediate information about the client’s glucose levels or help confirm hypoglycemia. However, if the client’s symptoms persist or worsen, assessing vital signs becomes important to monitor for signs of shock or other complications.
B) Obtaining a fingerstick blood glucose is the priority action in this situation. Glipizide is an oral antidiabetic medication that stimulates insulin release from the pancreas, leading to lower blood glucose levels. Symptoms such as confusion and blurred vision are indicative of hypoglycemia, a potential adverse effect of glipizide. Checking the client’s blood glucose level will confirm hypoglycemia and guide further interventions.
C) While performing a neurological exam may be warranted if the client’s symptoms persist or if there are concerns about other neurological issues, confirming hypoglycemia with a fingerstick blood glucose test should be the immediate priority.
D) Administering glucagon intramuscularly (IM) is indicated for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. However, in this scenario, the client is conscious and able to report symptoms. Before administering glucagon, it is essential to confirm hypoglycemia with a blood glucose measurement to avoid unnecessary interventions.
Therefore, the nurse should promptly obtain a fingerstick blood glucose to confirm hypoglycemia and initiate appropriate treatment for the client’s symptoms.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Holding the dose of IV pantoprazole until the client has finished eating breakfast may delay the onset of action of the medication, as pantoprazole is typically administered before meals to maximize its effectiveness in reducing gastric acid secretion. Additionally, delaying the dose may not provide immediate relief for the client's he’rtburn symptoms.
B) Providing a PRN dose of antacid along with the scheduled medications may temporarily relieve the client's he’rtburn symptoms, but it does not address the underlying cause of peptic ulcer disease or prevent further gastric acid secretion, which is the primary goal of pantoprazole and sucralfate administration.
C) Instructing the client to take the dose of sucralfate PO while eating breakfast may interfere with the optimal absorption of the medication. Sucralfate forms a protective barrier over ulcers in the stomach and should be administered on an empty stomach to allow it to adhere to the gastric mucosa effectively.
D) Administering both of the medications before breakfast as scheduled is the most appropriate action. Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that reduces gastric acid production, and sucralfate forms a protective barrier over ulcers in the stomach. Administering these medications before breakfast allows them to work synergistically to reduce gastric acid secretion and protect the gastric mucosa, helping to alleviate the client's he’rtburn symptoms and promote ulcer healing.
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