A client's wife has just learned that her husband is terminally ill. She is sitting in the corner of the client's room crying, and says to the nurse, "I feel as if I'm already so alone." Which action should the nurse take first?

Offer reassurance that she is not alone.

Explain that alternative treatment options may be helpful.

Encourage the wife to share her feelings.

Remind her that her husband may still live a long time.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Offering reassurance that she is not alone is not the best action to take first. It may sound dismissive of her feelings and make her feel more isolated.

Choice B reason: Explaining that alternative treatment options may be helpful is not the best action to take first. It may give false hope or imply that the wife is not accepting the reality of her husband's condition.

Choice C reason: Encouraging the wife to share her feelings is the best action to take first. It shows empathy and respect for her emotional state. It also allows the nurse to assess her coping skills and provide appropriate support.

Choice D reason: Reminding her that her husband may still live a long time is not the best action to take first. It may contradict the medical prognosis and make the wife feel more confused and anxious.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Reviewing the chart for number of voids over the last 24 hours is not the best action to evaluate the client for urinary retention. It may provide some information about the client's urinary pattern, but it does not indicate the amount of urine left in the bladder after voiding.

Choice B reason: Palpating the suprapubic region for distention is a useful action to assess the client for urinary retention, but it is not the most accurate or reliable method. It may be difficult to palpate the bladder if the client is obese, has abdominal pain, or has bowel distention.

Choice C reason: Evaluating the client for urinary incontinence is not relevant to the assessment of urinary retention. Urinary incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine, while urinary retention is the inability to empty the bladder completely.

Choice D reason: Scanning the client's bladder after voiding is the best action to evaluate the client for urinary retention. It is a noninvasive and precise technique that measures the post-void residual urine volume. A normal post-void residual is less than 50 mL, while a high post-void residual indicates urinary retention.

Correct Answer is ["1"]

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 tablespoon

1. The prescription is for 30 mg of dextromethorphan.

2. The bottle indicates that there are 30 mg of dextromethorphan per 15 mL.

So, for a 30 mg dose, the client needs to take 15 mL of the suspension.

Therefore, the client should take 1 tablespoon for each dose

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A client's wife has just learned that her husband is terminally ill. She is sitting in the corner of the client's room crying, and says to the nurse, "I feel as if I'm already so alone." Which action should the nurse take first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client who is on complete bedrest frequently calls the nurse for the bedpan to urinate. Which action should the nurse take to evaluate the client for urinary retention?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client receives a prescription for dextromethorphan 30 mg every 6 to 8 hours as needed for cough. The bottle is labeled "Dextromethorphan for Oral Suspension, USP 30 mg per 15 mL." How many tablespoons should the nurse instruct the client to take with each dose? (Enter numerical value only.)

Correct Answer is ["1"]

Explanation

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