A client with Type 2 diabetes, controlled with diet and metformin, also has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). During an exacerbation of COPD, the client is prescribed prednisone to control inflammation. For which side effect should the nurse monitor the client?

Increased blood glucose levels.

Increased potassium levels.

Increased white blood cell count.

Increased ketones in the urine.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason:
Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia, especially in clients with diabetes. The nurse should monitor blood glucose levels because prednisone can increase insulin resistance and hepatic glucose production, leading to elevated blood glucose levels. Normal fasting blood glucose levels range from 70 to 99 mg/dL, and for individuals with diabetes, maintaining blood glucose levels within the target range set by their healthcare provider is crucial to prevent complications.

Choice B reason:
While corticosteroids can affect electrolyte balance, they typically cause a decrease in potassium levels, not an increase. Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia, rather than hyperkalemia, would be more appropriate when a patient is on prednisone. The normal range for serum potassium is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L.

Choice C reason:
Corticosteroids like prednisone can cause leukocytosis, an increase in white blood cell count, as part of their immunosuppressive action. However, this is generally not a harmful side effect unless accompanied by infection or other complications. The normal range for white blood cell count is approximately 4,500 to 11,000 cells per microliter.

Choice D reason:
Increased ketones in the urine, or ketonuria, is not a typical side effect of prednisone. Ketonuria is more commonly associated with uncontrolled diabetes, particularly Type 1 diabetes, when there is an insulin deficiency and the body resorts to fat breakdown, leading to ketone production.

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Correct Answer is ["B","D"]

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Cyanosis, or a bluish discoloration of the skin, particularly in the nail beds, is a sign of inadequate oxygenation and would not indicate successful intervention. The absence of cyanosis would be a positive outcome, reflecting improved oxygen saturation.

Choice B reason:
Lungs clear to auscultation would indicate that air is moving through all regions of the lungs without obstruction from fluid or mucus, which is a sign of recovery from pneumonia. This finding suggests that the interventions aimed at improving gas exchange, such as positioning, deep breathing exercises, and suctioning if needed, have been effective.

Choice C reason: The inability to speak in full sentences often indicates respiratory distress and would not be a sign of successful nursing intervention. An improvement would be the client's ability to speak in full sentences without difficulty, reflecting better lung function and gas exchange.

Choice D reason:
Pulse oximetry readings between 94-96% on room air are within normal limits and indicate adequate oxygen saturation and gas exchange. This is a clear sign that the client's respiratory status has improved, and the interventions for Impaired Gas Exchange have been successful.

Choice E reason:
Bronchovesicular breath sounds are normal breath sounds heard over the major bronchi and are typically moderate in pitch and intensity. However, they are not specifically indicative of successful intervention for Impaired Gas Exchange. The absence of abnormal sounds such as crackles or wheezes would be more relevant.

A. Switched to heparin. B. Given as prescribed. C. Increased. D. Held.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason:
Switching to heparin is not the standard response for a high INR. Heparin may be used in conjunction with warfarin when starting anticoagulation therapy, but it is not typically used as a substitute in response to an elevated INR.

Choice B Reason:
Giving the dose as prescribed would not be appropriate when the INR is significantly above the therapeutic range. Continuing the same dose could increase the risk of bleeding complications.

Choice C Reason:
Increasing the dose would be contraindicated as the INR is already too high. Increasing the warfarin dose would further elevate the INR and increase the risk of bleeding.

Choice D Reason:
Holding the dose is the correct action when the INR is significantly above the therapeutic range, which is generally between 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications. The healthcare provider should be notified, and the warfarin dose should be held until the INR returns to the therapeutic range. Vitamin K may also be administered to help lower the INR more quickly if necessary.

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A client with Type 2 diabetes, controlled with diet and metformin, also has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). During an exacerbation of COPD, the client is prescribed prednisone to control inflammation. For which side effect should the nurse monitor the client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse implements a plan of care for a client with the problem of Impaired Gas Exchange as a result of left lower lobe pneumonia. Which findings would indicate that nursing interventions were successful? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is ["B","D"]

Explanation

The nurse has administered warfarin 2.5 mg orally daily for three days to a client who has deep vein thrombosis. The client's International Normalized Ratio (INR) today is 5.0. The nurse notifies the healthcare provider because today's dose of the medication should be:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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