A client with ovarian cancer is admitted to the hospital for surgery and the nurse is completing the clients health history. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse look out for?

Fish like odor

Increased abdominal girth.

Fever and chills.

Lower abdominal pelvic pain

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Lower abdominal pelvic pain is a common clinical manifestation of ovarian cancer. Ovarian cancer may not cause any noticeable symptoms in its early stages, but as the cancer grows and spreads, symptoms may develop. Pelvic pain or pressure is a common symptom, along with bloating, difficulty eating or feeling full quickly, and urinary urgency or frequency. Other symptoms may include fatigue, indigestion, back pain, constipation, and menstrual irregularities. A fish-like odor (a symptom of bacterial vaginosis) increased abdominal girth,

fever and chills, and leukocytosis are not typically associated with ovarian cancer. However, leukocytosis (an elevated white blood cell count) may be present in response to inflammation or infection. It is important for the nurse to assess the client's symptoms thoroughly and report any concerning findings to the healthcare provider.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Endometriosis is a condition in which tissue like the lining of the uterus grows outside of the uterus, causing pain and discomfort. Acute pain is a common symptom of endometriosis and can be severe enough to interfere with daily activities and quality of life. Therefore, pain management should be a priority in the care of clients with endometriosis.

While anxiety related to risk of transmission (option a) and excess fluid volume related to abdominal distention (option d) may also be concerns for some clients with endometriosis, they are generally not the most urgent priorities. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to hemorrhage (option c) may be a concern in rare cases of severe endometriosis, but it is not a common or typical complication.

A. The client breastfed each of their children. B. The client gave birth to their first child at age 40. C. The client experienced peri-menopausal symptoms starting at age 46. D. The client experienced menarche at age 13.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse should identify the risk factor of the client giving birth to their first child at age 40 as this is associated with an increased risk of certain pregnancy complications and health problems for both the mother and the baby, such as gestational diabetes, preeclampsia, preterm delivery, and chromosomal abnormalities in the baby. Breastfeeding, experiencing peri-menopausal symptoms, and menarche at age 13 are not significant risk factors in this context. However, it is important to note that each of these factors may be relevant to the client's overall health history and should be documented and taken into consideration as appropriate.

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A client with ovarian cancer is admitted to the hospital for surgery and the nurse is completing the clients health history. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse look out for?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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