A client with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with an acute joint bleed. What is the nurse's priority intervention for managing joint bleeding in this client?

Apply a warm compress to the affected joint.

Administer prescribed clotting factor replacement therapy.

Elevate the affected joint to reduce swelling.

Encourage active range of motion exercises.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Incorrect. Applying a warm compress may promote vasodilation and increase bleeding in the joint. It is not recommended for managing joint bleeding in a client with hemophilia.

B) Correct. The priority intervention for managing joint bleeding in a client with hemophilia is to administer prescribed clotting factor replacement therapy to promote clot formation and stop the bleeding.

C) Incorrect. Elevating the affected joint can help reduce swelling, but it is not the priority intervention when the client is experiencing an acute joint bleed.

D) Incorrect. Encouraging active range of motion exercises can worsen joint bleeding and is contraindicated in a client with acute joint bleeding due to hemophilia.

Questions

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Swelling and bruising around the wound are common signs of external bleeding and do not directly indicate internal bleeding.

B) Correct. Cool and pale skin in the extremities may be indicative of vasoconstriction and reduced blood flow, which can occur in response to internal bleeding.

C) Incorrect. Blood oozing from the wound site is a typical sign of external bleeding and does not necessarily indicate internal bleeding.

D) Incorrect. Visible blood clot formation at the wound site is a normal part of the body's hemostatic response to control external bleeding and does not directly suggest internal bleeding.

A. "I take anticoagulant medication for a heart condition." B. "I have a family history of bleeding disorders." C. "I regularly engage in low-impact exercise to stay healthy." D. "I recently underwent major abdominal surgery."

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Correct. Anticoagulant medication can interfere with the body's clotting mechanism, increasing the risk of bleeding.

B) Correct. A family history of bleeding disorders can be a risk factor for hemorrhage due to potential genetic predisposition.

C) Incorrect. Regular low-impact exercise is a positive lifestyle choice that helps maintain cardiovascular health and does not directly contribute to an increased risk of hemorrhage.

D) Correct. Recent major surgery can be a risk factor for hemorrhage due to potential surgical site bleeding or complications.

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A client with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with an acute joint bleed. What is the nurse's priority intervention for managing joint bleeding in this client?

Nursing Test Bank

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