A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (CORD) and type 2 diabetes has been treated for pneumonia for the past week. The client has been receiving intravenous corticosteroids as well as antibiotics as part of his therapy. At this time, the pneumonia has resolved, but when monitoring the blood glucose levels, the nurse notices that the level is still elevated.
What is the best explanation for this elevation?
The hypoxia caused by the COPD causes an increased need for insulin.
The corticosteroids may cause an increase in glucose levels.
The antibiotics may cause an increase in glucose levels.
His type 2 diabetes has converted to type 1.
The Correct Answer is B
B. corticosteroid has a counter regulatory hormone effect in glucose control
A. Hypoxia does not increase insulin need
C. Antibiotics do not increase blood glucose
D. Type 2 diabetes cannot convert to type 1
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
aminoglycosides and loop diuretics are ototoxic. This risk increases to an even higher level when the two drugs are used together. Therefore, their use together should be avoided.
Other drugs have no significant interactions with aminoglycosides
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Disulfiram blocks the metabolism of alcohol leading to unpleasant effects such as flushing, apprehension, headache, nausea and vomiting
A. Alcohol containing substances will cause the unpleasant effect when consumed
B. Disulfiram prevent metabolism of alcohol and hence has no similar effects to alcohol
C. When taken with warfarin, it increases the risk of bleeding
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