A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (CORD) and type 2 diabetes has been treated for pneumonia for the past week. The client has been receiving intravenous corticosteroids as well as antibiotics as part of his therapy. At this time, the pneumonia has resolved, but when monitoring the blood glucose levels, the nurse notices that the level is still elevated.
What is the best explanation for this elevation?
The hypoxia caused by the COPD causes an increased need for insulin.
The corticosteroids may cause an increase in glucose levels.
The antibiotics may cause an increase in glucose levels.
His type 2 diabetes has converted to type 1.
The Correct Answer is B
B. corticosteroid has a counter regulatory hormone effect in glucose control
A. Hypoxia does not increase insulin need
C. Antibiotics do not increase blood glucose
D. Type 2 diabetes cannot convert to type 1
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Warfarin reduces the activity of vitamin K to prevent excessive clot formation. Feverfew, garlic, and gingko can also reduce the activity of vitamin K or interfere with platelet function, which can make the blood thinner and harder to clot.
D. Saw Palmetto- Inhibits prostatic growth factors and is used for BPH
E. Used to promote formation of articular cartilage in osteoarthritis
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale- A spacer connects the MDI and the mouth containing any medication exhaled eliminating the need for the coordination
B. Notifying the provider does not solve the client’s need
C. Inhalers are delivered directly into the airway and are not taken orally
D. A peak flow meter is used to measure peak flow but not for drug delivery
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