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A client who has been anticoagulated with warfarin (Coumadin) has been admitted for gastrointestinal bleeding. The history and physical examination indicates that the client may have been taken too much warfarin. The nurse anticipates that client will receive which antidote?

Potassium chloride

Vitamin E

Protamine sulfate

Vitamin K

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Potassium chloride is used to treat hypokalemia, not as a warfarin antidote.

B. Vitamin E does not counteract warfarin’s effects and may increase bleeding risk.

C. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, not warfarin.

D. Vitamin K is the appropriate antidote for excessive warfarin, as it promotes the synthesis of clotting factors inhibited by warfarin.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Sinus rhythm is the normal rhythm of the heart with regular P waves, QRS complexes, and T waves. The presence of a sinus rhythm would mean the heart is pumping blood effectively, so the client would not be pulseless. This is inconsistent with the clinical scenario.

B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a fast, regular rhythm originating in the ventricles. VT can lead to pulselessness if not treated, but it has distinct QRS complexes that are wide and regular, unlike the chaotic waveform seen in VF.

C. Ventricular Fibrillation appears as rapid, chaotic electrical activity without identifiable P waves, QRS complexes, or T waves. This rhythm prevents the heart from pumping blood, causing the client to be pulseless and unresponsive. VF is the most common arrhythmia associated with sudden cardiac arrest and requires immediate defibrillation.

D. Sinus tachycardia is a fast heart rate (>100 bpm) with regular rhythm, identifiable P waves, and QRS complexes. This rhythm typically occurs in response to stress, fever, or hypovolemia, and the client would have a pulse, which contradicts the scenario.

A. An 80-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. B. A 78-year-old who had a carotid endarterectomy. C. A 45-year-old who takes an aspirin daily. D. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is more common in older adults, particularly those with underlying conditions like chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). COPD can lead to structural changes in the heart, increasing the risk of AF. The elderly are particularly vulnerable due to age-related heart changes and comorbidities such as lung disease.

B. While carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure that can be related to stroke prevention, it is not directly associated with a higher risk of AF compared to COPD.

C. Aspirin is used for its antiplatelet effects, not directly related to the risk of AF.

D. Post coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery increases the risk for arrhythmias, but it is less directly linked to AF than conditions like COPD in an older adult.

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A client who has been anticoagulated with warfarin (Coumadin) has been admitted for gastrointestinal bleeding. The history and physical examination indicates that the client may have been taken too much warfarin. The nurse anticipates that client will receive which antidote?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse leaves a coffee shop and sees a man lying on the ground. He is unresponsive and has no pulse and the nurse begins chest compressions. EMS arrives and connects the cardiac monitor displaying this rhythm. Identify the rhythm.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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