A client presents with a sudden onset of a severe headache, confusion, and facial drooping.
The nurse is reviewing the Medication Administration Record and potential provider orders. Which potential condition is the client most likely experiencing?
Migraine Headache.
Stroke.
Trigeminal Neuralgia.
Meningitis.
The Correct Answer is B
This scenario requires differentiating between various neurological conditions based on the sudden onset of focal deficits and altered mental status. Recognizing the hallmarks of acute ischemia or hemorrhage is vital for ensuring the patient receives rapid, time sensitive reperfusion therapies.
Choice A rationale
Migraines typically present with unilateral throbbing pain, photophobia, and phonophobia, often preceded by an aura. While they can be severe, they do not usually cause acute facial drooping or the profound confusion associated with a cerebrovascular accident.
Choice B rationale
A stroke involves a sudden interruption of blood flow to the brain, causing rapid onset focal neurological deficits. Facial drooping, confusion, and severe headache are classic signs of either ischemic or hemorrhagic events requiring immediate emergency diagnostic imaging.
Choice C rationale
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, brief, and excruciating paroxysmal facial pain along the branches of the fifth cranial nerve. It does not cause confusion, facial drooping, or a generalized severe headache, as it is a sensory nerve disorder.
Choice D rationale
Meningitis involves inflammation of the meninges, typically presenting with fever, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia. While confusion and headache occur, the onset is usually more gradual than a stroke and does not typically include acute focal facial drooping.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Endotracheal suctioning carries risks of hypoxia and vagal stimulation. Knowledge of respiratory physiology and emergency protocols is required to recognize when a procedure is causing clinical instability and to prioritize the immediate restoration of oxygenation and cardiac rhythm stability.
Choice A rationale
Tachycardia, arrhythmias, and desaturation during suctioning indicate acute hypoxia and myocardial stress. The nurse must stop the procedure immediately to prevent cardiac arrest and provide 100 percent oxygen to restore alveolar gas exchange and stabilize the heart rate.
Choice B rationale
Continuing the procedure while the patient is experiencing cardiac instability and severe hypoxia is dangerous. Prolonged suctioning increases the risk of further vagal stimulation and worsening hypoxemia, which could lead to fatal arrhythmias or sudden respiratory and cardiac collapse.
Choice C rationale
While the provider needs to be informed, it is not the priority. Immediate life saving intervention, such as stopping suctioning and hyper-oxygenating the client, must occur first to address the physiological distress and prevent further deterioration of the client.
Choice D rationale
Antiarrhythmics are not the first line treatment for suction induced arrhythmias. These rhythm changes are usually a direct result of hypoxia. Correcting the underlying oxygen deficiency by stopping the suction and providing supplemental oxygen usually resolves the tachycardia and irregularity..
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Managing chronic kidney disease requires understanding the reciprocal relationship between calcium and phosphorus. Knowledge of renal osteodystrophy, vitamin D activation, and the role of the parathyroid hormone in mineral homeostasis is essential to identify the associated electrolyte shift.
Choice A rationale
Hypokalemia is not the primary association with hypocalcemia in kidney failure. Chronic kidney disease usually results in hyperkalemia, where potassium exceeds 5.0 mEq/L, because the failing kidneys cannot effectively excrete excess potassium ions into the urine.
Choice B rationale
Hypernatremia is an elevation of sodium above 145 mEq/L and is not directly linked to the calcium-phosphorus axis. While fluid balance is impaired in renal failure, sodium levels vary based on fluid volume status rather than hypocalcemia.
Choice C rationale
In kidney failure, phosphorus excretion decreases, leading to hyperphosphatemia. High serum phosphorus (above 4.5 mg/dL) binds with calcium, causing hypocalcemia (below 8.5 mg/dL). Additionally, decreased vitamin D activation in the kidneys further reduces calcium absorption from the gut.
Choice D rationale
Hyponatremia, or sodium below 135 mEq/L, often results from fluid overload in renal patients but is not the metabolic driver of low calcium. The hallmark mineral imbalance involves the inverse relationship specifically between serum phosphate and ionized calcium.
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