A client is to receive a penicillin intramuscular (IM) injection in the ventrogluteal site. What is the correct angle that the nurse should use for the needle insertion?
90 degrees
45 degrees
15 degrees
60 degrees
The Correct Answer is A
A) 90 degrees: For intramuscular (IM) injections, including in the ventrogluteal site, the needle should be inserted at a 90-degree angle to ensure that the medication is deposited deep into the muscle tissue. This angle allows the needle to penetrate the skin and subcutaneous tissue directly into the muscle where it can be absorbed efficiently. The ventrogluteal site, being a large and well-muscled area, is ideal for IM injections because it is less likely to cause damage to nerves or blood vessels, and a 90-degree angle ensures proper placement of the medication.
B) 45 degrees: A 45-degree angle is commonly used for subcutaneous injections which go into the fatty tissue just beneath the skin. This angle ensures that the medication is delivered into the correct layer of tissue, allowing for slow absorption. However, when administering an IM injection, a 45-degree angle would not be deep enough to reach the muscle and could result in improper placement, potentially affecting the medication's effectiveness and increasing the risk of irritation at the injection site.
C) 15 degrees: A 15-degree angle is far too shallow for an intramuscular injection and is typically used for intradermal injections, where the medication is injected just beneath the skin into the dermal layer. Using such a shallow angle for an IM injection would likely cause the needle to remain in the subcutaneous tissue, preventing the medication from reaching the muscle layer and significantly reducing its effectiveness.
D) 60 degrees: A 60-degree angle is too steep for intramuscular injections. At this angle, the needle may not effectively reach the muscle tissue and could cause the medication to be injected too superficially into the subcutaneous layer. This would not allow for proper absorption of the drug and may lead to irritation or a delayed therapeutic effect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) This medication neutralizes gastric acid in the stomach by direct contact: Sucralfate does not neutralize gastric acid. Instead, it works by forming a protective barrier over the ulcer, which helps protect it from further damage by stomach acid and promotes healing. Sucralfate is a mucosal protectant, not an acid-neutralizing agent.
B) "You should take this medication after meals to help limit gastric acid secretion": Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, typically 30 minutes to 1 hour before meals, to allow it to form an effective protective barrier over the ulcer. Taking it after meals would interfere with its action and effectiveness.
C) "This medication decreases gastric acid production by blocking histamine 2 receptors": Sucralfate does not work by blocking histamine 2 receptors. Histamine 2 receptor antagonists, such as ranitidine, work by reducing gastric acid secretion. Sucralfate works by coating and protecting the ulcer rather than by reducing acid production.
D) "You should take this medication 30 minutes to 1 hour before meals and at bedtime": Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, typically 30 minutes to 1 hour before meals and at bedtime. This timing ensures that the medication can form an effective barrier over the ulcer before food intake and helps maximize its healing properties.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) The client will remain free from visible bleeding, bruising, and signs of internal bleeding (tachycardia and hypotension) during this shift: This is the most appropriate outcome for the "Risk for bleeding" nursing diagnosis. Since both aspirin and warfarin are anticoagulants, they increase the client's risk of bleeding. The priority is to monitor for and prevent any signs of visible bleeding, bruising, or more serious internal bleeding, which could manifest as tachycardia or hypotension. This outcome directly addresses the client's safety by focusing on detecting and preventing bleeding complications.
B) The client will verbalize understanding of dietary restrictions while on warfarin and provide examples of foods that contain vitamin K during this shift: While this is an important goal for clients on warfarin (because vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin), it is not the most immediate concern in the context of the "Risk for bleeding" diagnosis. Dietary restrictions should be discussed but are not as time-sensitive or directly related to the prevention of bleeding in the short term, especially during this shift.
C) The client will state their pain level is less than 4 on a 0-10 pain scale during aspirin therapy: While managing pain is important, this outcome does not directly address the risk for bleeding associated with both aspirin and warfarin therapy. The priority nursing concern here is preventing bleeding, not pain management during aspirin therapy.
D) The client will remain free from any signs and symptoms of deep vein thrombosis (DVT): While preventing DVT is important for patients on anticoagulant therapy, the focus of this nursing diagnosis is on the risk of bleeding, not thrombosis. Therefore, this outcome is not as relevant to the immediate concerns related to the prescribed medications (aspirin and warfarin).
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