A client is prescribed amoxicillin for a bacterial infection. The nurse should teach the client to report which of the following signs of an allergic reaction to the medication?
Diarrhea
Rash
Headache
Nausea
The Correct Answer is B
A) Incorrect. Diarrhea is a common side effect of amoxicillin, but it is not a sign of an allergic reaction. The nurse should advise the client to drink plenty of fluids and eat foods that are high in fiber to prevent dehydration and constipation. The nurse should also instruct the client to report severe or bloody diarrhea, as it may indicate a serious condition called pseudomembranous colitis.
B) Correct. Rash is a sign of an allergic reaction to amoxicillin, and it may indicate a hypersensitivity or anaphylactic reaction. The nurse should instruct the client to report any rash, itching, hives, or swelling to their provider immediately and stop taking the medication.
C) Incorrect. Headache is a common side effect of amoxicillin, but it is not a sign of an allergic reaction. The nurse should advise the client to take over-the-counter analgesics, such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen, to relieve headache pain.
D) Incorrect. Nausea is a common side effect of amoxicillin, but it is not a sign of an allergic reaction. The nurse should advise the client to take the medication with food or milk to reduce nausea and vomiting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia, are caused by dopamine antagonists, such as haloperidol. However, these symptoms are not related to the combination of medications that the client is taking.
B) Incorrect. Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition that results from excessive serotonin activity in the central nervous system. It is caused by serotonin-enhancing medications, such as antidepressants, opioids, and triptans. None of the medications that the client is taking have this effect.
C) Correct. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare but serious condition that occurs due to dopamine blockade in the brain and peripheral tissues. It is caused by antipsychotic medications, such as haloperidol. The risk of NMS is increased when lithium carbonate is added to antipsychotic therapy, as lithium can potentiate the dopamine-blocking effect of antipsychotics.
D) Incorrect. Lithium toxicity is a condition that occurs when lithium levels exceed the therapeutic range of 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L. It is caused by factors that affect lithium excretion, such as dehydration, renal impairment, drug interactions, and overdose. None of the other medications that the client is taking interact with lithium or affect its excretion.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect. Morphine sulfate does not need to be diluted in normal saline before administration. Diluting the medication can reduce its potency and effectiveness.
B) Correct. Morphine sulfate should be injected slowly over 1 to 2 minutes to prevent adverse effects, such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and nausea.
C) Incorrect. Heparin is not indicated for flushing the IV line before and after administration of morphine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant that can increase the risk of bleeding. The IV line should be flushed with normal saline or sterile water to prevent medication incompatibility and ensure complete delivery of the medication.
D) Incorrect. The nurse should monitor the client's respiratory rate more frequently than every 15 minutes, as morphine sulfate can cause respiratory depression. The nurse should monitor the client's respiratory rate before, during, and after administration of the medication, and at least every 5 minutes until the client's pain is relieved.
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