A client is attempting to deliver vaginally despite the fact that her previous delivery was by cesarean birth.
Her contractions are 2-3 minutes apart, lasting from 75 to 100 seconds.
Suddenly, the client complains of intense abdominal pain, and the fetal monitor stops picking up contractions.
The nurse recognizes that which of the following has occurred?
Placenta previa.
Uterine rupture.
Prolapsed cord.
Abruptio placentae.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta implants in the lower part of the uterus, potentially covering the cervix. It typically presents with painless vaginal bleeding, especially in the later trimesters, and is not directly associated with sudden, intense abdominal pain and cessation of contractions during labor.
Choice B rationale
Uterine rupture is a serious complication of vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC), especially with strong, frequent contractions. The sudden onset of intense abdominal pain and the cessation of contractions, along with fetal distress indicated by the absent fetal heart rate tracing, are classic signs of uterine rupture. The prior cesarean scar weakens the uterine wall, making it susceptible to tearing under the stress of labor.
Choice C rationale
A prolapsed umbilical cord occurs when the cord descends into the vagina ahead of the presenting part, potentially compressing the fetal blood vessels and causing fetal distress. While fetal heart rate abnormalities would be present, it is not typically associated with sudden, intense maternal abdominal pain and cessation of contractions.
Choice D rationale
Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. It can cause sudden abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding (though not always), and fetal distress. However, the cessation of uterine contractions is not a typical finding in abruptio placentae. Contractions may continue, although they might be accompanied by increased uterine tone.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
The nurse should monitor the client’s temperature due to the risk of chorioamnionitis.
Rationale for correct answers
Temperature monitoring is crucial for detecting chorioamnionitis, an infection of the amniotic sac, which is a major risk following preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). PPROM increases susceptibility to ascending bacterial infection, leading to inflammation. Fever (>38°C or 100.4°F) is a primary diagnostic criterion.
Chorioamnionitis presents with maternal fever, fetal tachycardia (>160/min), uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid. The client's normal temperature now (36.7°C) requires ongoing monitoring, as infection could develop rapidly.
Rationale for incorrect Response 1 options
- Magnesium levels: Magnesium sulfate is used for seizure prophylaxis in eclampsia or for neuroprotection in preterm labor. This client has no signs of either condition.
- Fundal height: Measurement assesses fetal growth and amniotic fluid levels; it is not a direct indicator of infection risk.
- Clotting factors: No evidence of coagulopathy or bleeding abnormalities; coagulation profile is normal.
Rationale for incorrect Response 2 options
- Concealed hemorrhage: No signs of placental abruption (painful bleeding, rigid abdomen). Normal hemoglobin (12.0 g/dL) supports this.
- Seizures: No hypertensive crisis or neurological symptoms suggestive of eclampsia.
- Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC): No abnormal coagulation markers or evidence of excessive bleeding.
Take-home points
• PPROM increases the risk of chorioamnionitis, a serious intrauterine infection. • Fever monitoring is essential, as maternal fever is an early indicator of infection. • Antibiotics are given prophylactically to reduce chorioamnionitis risk in PPROM. • Differentiation from placental abruption, eclampsia, and DIC is based on clinical and laboratory findings.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Accumulation of flatulence can cause abdominal discomfort after a cesarean birth, but it does not directly stimulate uterine contractions leading to afterpains. Afterpains are specifically related to the involution of the uterus, not gastrointestinal motility.
Choice B rationale
Breastfeeding stimulates the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin is a powerful uterotonic hormone that causes the uterus to contract to its pre-pregnant size. These contractions are experienced as afterpains, especially in multiparous women whose uterine muscles may have less tone.
Choice C rationale
While some medications administered after birth can have side effects, severe cramps or afterpains are primarily a physiological response to uterine involution and the hormonal changes associated with breastfeeding, rather than a direct adverse effect of medication.
Choice D rationale
Healing of the abdominal incision after a C-section causes incisional pain, which is distinct from the cramping sensation of afterpains. Afterpains are specifically due to uterine contractions, not the healing process of the abdominal wall.
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