A client is attempting to deliver vaginally despite the fact that her previous delivery was by cesarean birth.
Her contractions are 2-3 minutes apart, lasting from 75 to 100 seconds.
Suddenly, the client complains of intense abdominal pain, and the fetal monitor stops picking up contractions.
The nurse recognizes that which of the following has occurred?
Placenta previa.
Uterine rupture.
Prolapsed cord.
Abruptio placentae.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta implants in the lower part of the uterus, potentially covering the cervix. It typically presents with painless vaginal bleeding, especially in the later trimesters, and is not directly associated with sudden, intense abdominal pain and cessation of contractions during labor.
Choice B rationale
Uterine rupture is a serious complication of vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC), especially with strong, frequent contractions. The sudden onset of intense abdominal pain and the cessation of contractions, along with fetal distress indicated by the absent fetal heart rate tracing, are classic signs of uterine rupture. The prior cesarean scar weakens the uterine wall, making it susceptible to tearing under the stress of labor.
Choice C rationale
A prolapsed umbilical cord occurs when the cord descends into the vagina ahead of the presenting part, potentially compressing the fetal blood vessels and causing fetal distress. While fetal heart rate abnormalities would be present, it is not typically associated with sudden, intense maternal abdominal pain and cessation of contractions.
Choice D rationale
Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. It can cause sudden abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding (though not always), and fetal distress. However, the cessation of uterine contractions is not a typical finding in abruptio placentae. Contractions may continue, although they might be accompanied by increased uterine tone.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Condition
Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension (≥140/90 mm Hg) and proteinuria (≥300 mg/24 hr) or signs of systemic involvement such as headache and edema. The client’s elevated BP, significant proteinuria, headache, hyperreflexia, and pitting edema strongly indicate preeclampsia. The absence of seizures rules out eclampsia, and the gestational age excludes chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia.
Rationale for Correct Actions
Magnesium sulfate prevents seizures by stabilizing neuronal excitability and reducing cerebral vasospasm. It also lowers BP by promoting vascular relaxation. External fetal monitoring detects fetal distress from utero-placental insufficiency caused by preeclampsia-related hypertension and endothelial dysfunction.
Rationale for Correct Parameters
Blood pressure reflects disease progression and response to antihypertensives. Severe hypertension increases the risk of cerebral hemorrhage and placental abruption. Deep tendon reflexes indicate neurological impairment. Hyperreflexia signals worsening preeclampsia, while absent reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity.
Rationale for Incorrect Conditions
Gestational hypertension lacks proteinuria and systemic symptoms. Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia requires a pre-existing hypertensive diagnosis. Eclampsia involves seizures, which the client has not reported.
Rationale for Incorrect Actions
Ampicillin is not indicated without infection. Rh immune globulin is unnecessary without Rh incompatibility. Anticoagulants are not first-line for preeclampsia.
Rationale for Incorrect Parameters
Temperature is not directly related to preeclampsia. Petechiae are signs of coagulopathy, not primary indicators. Pruritus is irrelevant unless liver dysfunction is suspected.
Take-Home Points
- Preeclampsia involves multisystem dysfunction with endothelial damage.
- Magnesium sulfate prevents seizures but must be monitored for toxicity.
- Differentiation from gestational hypertension is crucial for management.
- Fetal monitoring is key to detecting early signs of compromise.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While documenting findings is a crucial nursing responsibility, a white blood cell count of 28,000 mm³ in a newborn is significantly elevated. The normal range for a newborn's WBC count is typically between 9,000 to 30,000 mm³, but a value at the higher end or exceeding this range warrants further investigation to rule out infection or other underlying conditions. Simply documenting without further action could delay necessary interventions.
Choice B rationale
A WBC count of 28,000 mm³ in a newborn raises suspicion for neonatal sepsis, a serious bloodstream infection. Unit protocols for a sepsis workup typically involve obtaining blood cultures, a complete blood count with differential, and potentially a lumbar puncture and chest X-ray to identify the source and extent of infection. Prompt initiation of these measures is critical for timely diagnosis and treatment, improving the newborn's prognosis.
Choice C rationale
Taking vital signs is a standard nursing assessment, but in the presence of an abnormal lab value suggestive of a serious condition like sepsis, it is insufficient as the sole action. While changes in vital signs can indicate infection, they may not be present in the early stages. Notifying the provider is necessary, but initiating a sepsis workup concurrently based on unit protocol allows for quicker diagnostic evaluation.
Choice D rationale
A heel stick for a bedside blood glucose reading is indicated for assessing hypoglycemia, a common concern in newborns, particularly those at risk. However, it does not directly address the significantly elevated WBC count. While infection can sometimes affect blood glucose levels, this test would not provide information about the potential underlying cause of the leukocytosis.
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