A client has undergone a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). He is currently being treated with continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) and is complaining of an increase in the severity of bladder spasms. Which intervention should the nurse perform first?
Perform a bladder scan.
Stop the irrigation and note findings in the chart.
Administer an oral analgesic.
Ensure that the catheter is draining properly.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason
Performing a bladder scan can help determine the volume of urine in the bladder and assess for urinary retention, which could contribute to bladder spasms. However, this is not typically the first intervention. The priority is to ensure that the catheter is patent and draining correctly, as blockages can cause immediate discomfort and increased spasms
Choice B Reason
Stopping the irrigation could be considered if there is a concern that the CBI is contributing to the spasms. However, this would not be the first action taken. It is essential first to assess the catheter's patency and the flow of the irrigation to rule out any obstruction or kinking causing the spasms.
Choice C Reason
Administering an oral analgesic may help alleviate the discomfort caused by bladder spasms, but it does not address the underlying cause. Pain relief is important, but the initial step should be to check for and resolve any mechanical issues with the catheter system that could be causing the spasms.
Choice D Reason
Ensuring that the catheter is draining properly is the first and most crucial intervention. If the catheter is blocked or kinked, it can cause bladder distention and increased spasms. Checking the catheter's patency and the flow of irrigation can quickly resolve the issue and provide relief to the patient. If the catheter is found to be obstructed, resolving the blockage can decrease the severity of the spasms and improve the patient's comfort.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason
Petechiae on the chest are a classic sign of fat emboli syndrome (FES). FES is a rare but serious complication that can occur after a long bone fracture, such as a femur fracture. The petechiae result from small fat droplets that travel to the skin's capillaries and cause pinpoint hemorrhages. This symptom is part of the classic triad for FES, which includes respiratory distress, neurological symptoms, and a petechial rash.
Choice B Reason
While an edematous calf may be a concern for deep vein thrombosis or other complications following a fracture, it is not a specific indicator of FES. Edema in the calf could be due to various reasons, including local trauma from the fracture itself or immobilization.
Choice C Reason
An elevated temperature can be associated with many post-injury complications, including infection or inflammatory response. However, it is not specific to FES. While patients with FES may present with fever, it is not one of the primary diagnostic criteria.
Choice D Reason
Paresthesia distal to the fracture could indicate nerve damage or compartment syndrome, which are important to assess in a patient with a femur fracture. However, paresthesia is not a specific sign of FES. The neurological symptoms associated with FES are more generalized and often include confusion or altered mental status.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
A respiratory rate of 24/min is slightly elevated, which can be expected in a client with pneumonia due to the body's attempt to increase oxygen intake and carbon dioxide elimination. However, this rate does not directly indicate ineffective airway clearance.
Choice B reason:
A weak, nonproductive cough is a key indicator of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, the presence of secretions in the airways is common, and an effective cough is necessary to clear these secretions. A weak cough that does not produce sputum suggests that the client is unable to clear their airways effectively, which can lead to impaired gas exchange and worsening of symptoms.
Choice C reason:
Pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 90% indicates that the client's oxygen saturation is below the normal range, which is typically between 95-100% for healthy individuals. While this finding is concerning and warrants intervention, it is a result of ineffective airway clearance rather than a direct indicator of it.
Choice D reason:
Shortness of breath with activity is common in clients with pneumonia and can result from various factors, including impaired gas exchange, decreased lung compliance, and increased work of breathing. While it may be associated with ineffective airway clearance, it is not as specific as a weak, nonproductive cough for indicating this particular problem.
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