A client comes to the emergency department with reports of three days of watery stools and emesis x 6 in the past hour. Upon assessment, the nurse notes vital signs are B/P 130/92 mmHg, heart rate 130 bpm, respiratory rate 18 bpm, and oxygen saturation of 98% in room air. The nurse puts the client on the cardiac monitor. What does the nurse anticipate will be the prescription by the medical provider?
Heparin drip
Sodium Chloride IV bolus
Atenolol oral
Verapamil oral
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant, not typically used to treat dehydration due to diarrhea and vomiting4.
Choice B rationale: Sodium Chloride IV bolus is often used to treat dehydration, which can be caused by three days of watery stools and emesis5.
Choice C rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker, used to manage heart conditions, not dehydration4.
Choice D rationale: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, not typically used to treat dehydration4.
So, the correct answer is Choice B, after analyzing all choices.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Docusate sodium 200 mg PO at bedtime:
This prescription seems appropriate. Docusate sodium is a stool softener commonly used to prevent or alleviate constipation. Taking it at bedtime can help ensure a regular bowel movement in the morning.
B. Meloxicam 15 mg PO daily:
This prescription is generally appropriate. Meloxicam is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for pain and inflammation. The daily dosing is common, but the nurse should assess for any contraindications or potential issues with the patient's renal function since NSAIDs can affect the kidneys.
C. Regular insulin 8 units subcutaneous before meals:
This prescription requires clarification. While the prescription indicates the correct medication and route (regular insulin subcutaneously), it lacks specificity regarding the timing in relation to meals. Regular insulin is typically given 30 minutes before meals to control postprandial blood glucose levels. The nurse should contact the provider to confirm the appropriate timing.
D. Fentanyl 25 mcg/hr transdermal patch:
This prescription seems appropriate. Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic, and a transdermal patch provides continuous pain relief over an extended period. The dose is specified in micrograms per hour (mcg/hr), which is a common method for administering continuous medications
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: An oxygen saturation reading of 99% on room air is normal8.
Choice B rationale: Slurred speech could indicate a stroke, which is a potential complication of atrial fibrillation due to the risk of clot formation8.
Choice C rationale: A decrease in intensity of chest pain is not typically a sign of worsening atrial fibrillation8.
Choice D rationale: While elevated blood pressure can be associated with atrial fibrillation, it is not a specific sign of worsening atrial fibrillation8.
So, the correct answer is Choice B, after analyzing all choices.
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