A child with an Escherichia coli urinary tract infection is receiving a secondary infusion of gentamicin 60 mg every 8 hours IV, which is to be infused over 30 minutes.
The medication is delivered by the pharmacy diluted in a 50 ml bag of saline.
What should be the infusion pump’s regulation in mL/hour? (Provide the numeric value only.)
The Correct Answer is ["100"]
Step 1: The child is receiving gentamicin 60 mg every 8 hours IV, which is to be infused over 30 minutes. The medication is delivered by the pharmacy diluted in a 50 ml bag of saline.
Step 2: We need to find the infusion pump’s regulation in mL/hour.
Step 3: Since the medication is to be infused over 30 minutes, we convert this to hours by dividing by 60. So, 30 minutes is 0.5 hours.
Step 4: The rate of infusion is then the total volume (50 mL) divided by the time in hours (0.5 hours).
Step 5: So, the infusion pump’s regulation is (50 mL ÷ 0.5 hours) = 100 mL/hour.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While taking the blood pressure in the other arm might avoid the spasms, it does not address the underlying cause of the spasms. Therefore, this is not the best action for the nurse to take.
Choice B rationale
Using a different sphygmomanometer would not necessarily prevent the spasms from occurring. The spasms are likely not caused by the equipment itself, but rather a physiological issue within the client.
Choice C rationale
The spasms in the client’s hand and fingers could be a sign of hypocalcemia, a condition where there is not enough calcium in the blood. One of the symptoms of hypocalcemia is muscle spasms or tetany. Therefore, reviewing the client’s serum calcium level would be an appropriate action to take.
Choice D rationale
Administering a PRN antianxiety medication would not address the underlying cause of the spasms. While anxiety can cause muscle tension and spasms, there is no indication in the scenario that anxiety is the cause of this client’s symptoms.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While obtaining a serum drug screen might be helpful in confirming the presence of benzodiazepines or other substances, it is not the most immediate concern in a client experiencing severe agitation and tremors due to withdrawal.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and would not be effective in managing withdrawal symptoms from benzodiazepines.
Choice C rationale
Seizure precautions should be initiated as withdrawal from benzodiazepines can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms, including seizures. Therefore, ensuring the safety of the client by initiating seizure precautions is the best initial nursing action.
Choice D rationale
While education is an important part of nursing care, in this situation, the client’s immediate physical needs take precedence.
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