A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client’s risk to become violent.
Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?
A history of being in prison.
Previous violent behavior.
Experiencing delusions.
Male gender.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is B.
Previous violent behavior. According to the web search results, this is the best predictor of future violence among the given risk factors.
Other risk factors include past history of aggression, poor impulse control, and violence. Comorbidity that leads to acts of violence (psychotic delusions, command hallucinations, violent angry reactions with cognitive disorders).
Choice A is wrong because a history of being in prison is not a direct cause of violence, but rather a possible consequence of it.
Choice C is wrong because male gender is not a sufficient factor to predict violence, as there are many other variables involved. Choice D is wrong because experiencing delusions is not necessarily associated with violence, unless they are of a paranoid or persecutory nature.
Normal ranges for violence risk assessment are not standardized, but some tools that can be used include the Historical Clinical Risk Management-20 (HCR-20), the Violence Risk Appraisal Guide (VRAG), and the Psychopathy Checklist-Revised (PCL-R). These tools use different scales and criteria to evaluate the likelihood of violent behavior in individuals.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Wound dehiscence can lead to infection, bleeding, and evisceration (protrusion of internal organs through the incision). The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately and cover the wound with a sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline solution.
Choice A is wrong because mild swelling under the sutures near the incisional line is a normal finding in the early stages of wound healing. It does not indicate infection or dehiscence unless accompanied by other signs such as redness, warmth, pain, or purulent drainage.
Choice B is wrong because crusting of exudate on the incisional line is also a normal finding that indicates the formation of a scab.
A scab protects the wound from infection and helps it heal faster. The nurse should not remove the scab unless instructed by the provider.
Choice D is wrong because pink-tinged coloration on the incisional line is another normal finding that shows healthy granulation tissue.
Granulation tissue is new tissue that fills in the wound and helps it close. It is usually pink or red and moist.
The nurse should follow these general tips for postoperative abdominal incision care:
- Always wash your hands before and after touching your incisions.
- Inspect your incisions and wounds every day for signs your healthcare provider has told you are red flags or concerning.
- Look for any bleeding.
If the incisions start to bleed, apply direct and constant pressure to the incisions.
- Avoid wearing tight clothing that might rub on your incisions.
- Try not to scratch any itchy wounds.
- You can shower starting 48 hours after your operation but no scrubbing or soaking of the abdominal wounds in a tub.
- After the initial dressing from the operating room is removed, you can leave the wound open to air unless there is drainage or you feel more comfortable with soft gauze covering the wound.
- Surgical glue (Indermil) will fall off over a period of up to 2-3 weeks.
Do not put any topical ointments or lotions on the incisions.
- Do not rub over the incisions with a washcloth or towel.
- No tub baths, hot tubs, or swimming until evaluated at your clinic appointment.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. A client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty. A vertebroplasty is a procedure that injects cement into a fractured vertebra to help relieve pain and stabilize the spine. The recovery time for this procedure is usually short and the complications are rare.
Therefore, this client is most likely to be stable and ready for early discharge.
Choice A is wrong because a client who is receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) needs close monitoring of their blood levels and clotting factors. Heparin is a blood thinner that prevents the clots from getting bigger or breaking loose and traveling to the lungs, which can cause a life-threatening condition called pulmonary embolism (PE).
This client is not a good candidate for early discharge.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy needs to be isolated in a special room to prevent exposure of others to radiation. A sealed implant is a small holder that contains a radioactive source that is placed inside or near the tumor to deliver high doses of radiation. This type of internal radiation therapy, also called brachytherapy, can last from several minutes to several days, depending on the type and dose of the radioactive source.
This client is not a good candidate for early discharge.
Choice D is wrong because a client who has COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min has signs of respiratory distress and possible hypoxemia (low oxygen levels in the blood).
COP
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