A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client’s risk to become violent.
Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?
A history of being in prison.
Previous violent behavior.
Experiencing delusions.
Male gender.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is B.
Previous violent behavior. According to the web search results, this is the best predictor of future violence among the given risk factors.
Other risk factors include past history of aggression, poor impulse control, and violence. Comorbidity that leads to acts of violence (psychotic delusions, command hallucinations, violent angry reactions with cognitive disorders).
Choice A is wrong because a history of being in prison is not a direct cause of violence, but rather a possible consequence of it.
Choice C is wrong because male gender is not a sufficient factor to predict violence, as there are many other variables involved. Choice D is wrong because experiencing delusions is not necessarily associated with violence, unless they are of a paranoid or persecutory nature.
Normal ranges for violence risk assessment are not standardized, but some tools that can be used include the Historical Clinical Risk Management-20 (HCR-20), the Violence Risk Appraisal Guide (VRAG), and the Psychopathy Checklist-Revised (PCL-R). These tools use different scales and criteria to evaluate the likelihood of violent behavior in individuals.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Administer epinephrine subcutaneously. This is not the necessary action to be taken. Epinephrine is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis). However, in this case, the client is experiencing a febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction, not an allergic reaction.
Choice B reason:
Place the blood bag in a biohazard bag before discarding. This is not the necessary action to be taken by the nurse. Proper disposal of biohazardous materials is essential, but in this situation, the nurse's priority is to address the client's condition and not the disposal of the blood bag
Choice C reason:
Documentation of the transfusion reaction is crucial for the client's medical history and for future reference. The nurse should record the client's signs and symptoms, the actions taken, and any other relevant information related to the reaction.
Choice D reason
Infuse 500 ml lactated Ringer's IV. This is not necessary action to be taken by the nurse because there is no indication for infusing lactated Ringer's solution in response to the transfusion reaction described. Treatment for febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reactions generally involves stopping the transfusion, administering antipyretics (like acetaminophen) if necessary, and providing supportive care as needed.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+. This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.
Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
Choice C is wrong because pulse rate 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.
Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
Choice D is wrong because urine output 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day, or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
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