A 9-year-old patient is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of status asthmaticus. Upon entering the hospital room, the nurse observes that the child is sitting and leaning forward on an overbed table. The patient's SpO2 is 93%. The nurse should take which action next?
Allow the patient to remain in the chosen position.
Place the patient in semi-Fowler's.
Administer 100% oxygen via a face mask.
Encourage consumption of cool, clear fluids.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Allowing the patient to remain in the chosen position is inappropriate as the patient's position indicates distress. This choice should not be chosen.
Choice B rationale:
Placing the patient in semi-Fowler's position is the correct action. This position optimizes lung expansion and promotes easier breathing, which is crucial in managing status asthmaticus.
Choice C rationale:
Administering 100% oxygen via a face mask might be necessary eventually, but optimizing positioning takes precedence. Semi-Fowler's position should be established first.
Choice D rationale:
Encouraging consumption of cool, clear fluids is not the immediate priority in managing status asthmaticus. Respiratory support and positioning are more crucial.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome involves inadequate development of the left side of the heart, leading to systemic hypoperfusion. It is characterized by decreased pulmonary blood flow due to underdeveloped left heart structures.
Choice B rationale:
Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by obstruction to blood flow, specifically pulmonary stenosis, which obstructs blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery.
Choice C rationale:
Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) is a left-to-right shunt, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow. This occurs because oxygenated blood from the left atrium flows back into the right atrium and then into the pulmonary circulation.
Choice D rationale:
Aortic Stenosis is not correctly matched with its hemodynamic classification. Aortic stenosis involves obstruction to blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Inflammation and edema of the scrotum is not a typical symptom of gonorrhea. Scrotal involvement is more commonly associated with conditions like epididymitis.
Choice B rationale:
Painful urination with yellow urethral discharge is a classic symptom of gonorrhea. The infection affects the genitourinary tract, causing discomfort during urination and a characteristic purulent discharge.
Choice C rationale:
Maculopapular rash in the genital area is not a typical presentation of gonorrhea. This type of rash might be seen in other infections, such as syphilis.
Choice D rationale:
Red, hard lesion on the penis is not a common manifestation of gonorrhea. This description more closely matches the appearance of a primary syphilis chancre.
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