A 28-year-old client is admitted to the psychiatric unit following a motor vehicle accident. The client reports experiencing recurrent flashbacks, intrusive thoughts, and hypervigilance. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing symptoms of PTSD. Which assessment finding further supports this suspicion?
Binge eating and weight gain
Nightmares, difficulty concentrating, and irritability
Purging the last meal
Decreased energy and fatigue
The Correct Answer is B
A. Binge eating and weight gain are more commonly associated with eating disorders or other psychological conditions, not PTSD.
B. Nightmares, difficulty concentrating, and irritability are key symptoms of PTSD, reflecting the psychological impact of trauma. These are consistent with the intrusive and arousal symptoms associated with PTSD.
C. Purging is associated with eating disorders, not PTSD.
D. Decreased energy and fatigue are common symptoms of depression, not specifically indicative of PTSD, although they can be seen in both conditions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Propranolol: Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can be used to treat physical symptoms of anxiety, such as a racing heart. While it may help reduce physiological symptoms, it does not address the psychological components of anxiety and is not commonly prescribed for acute anxiety episodes like test-taking anxiety. Propranolol is more effective for individuals with performance anxiety (e.g., public speaking).
B. Lorazepam: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that works by depressing the central nervous system, providing rapid relief of acute anxiety symptoms. It is often used for short-term management of anxiety and can effectively reduce symptoms such as racing heart and trembling hands, making it appropriate for episodic anxiety like test-taking anxiety. However, it is typically prescribed for short-term use due to its potential for dependence.
C. Sertraline: Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used for chronic anxiety and depression, but it is not effective for acute episodic anxiety. SSRIs are typically prescribed for long-term management of anxiety disorders, rather than immediate symptom relief.
D. Buspirone: Buspirone is an anxiolytic medication used for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) but has a delayed onset of action and is not effective for acute, episodic anxiety relief. It is more suitable for long-term management rather than immediate symptom control.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A semi-private room may not provide enough structure or prevent overstimulation, which could exacerbate manic behavior.
B. A private room close to the nursing station is ideal for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. The nurse can monitor the client's behavior more closely while providing a quiet, private space to prevent overstimulation from other clients.
C. A seclusion room should not be the first option unless the client is a danger to themselves or others, and the client's activity level can usually be managed with more supportive measures.
D. A private room in a quiet location is not ideal because the nurse needs to be able to monitor the client closely and intervene if necessary, which would be more difficult in a remote area.
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