A 23-year-old sexually active female presents with white copious discharge and itch and is diagnosed with yeast vaginitis. This condition is caused by overgrowth of which
microorganism?
Candida albicans
Lactobacillus acidophilus
Escherichia coli
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: Yeast vaginitis, commonly known as a yeast infection, is typically caused by an overgrowth of Candida albicans, a type of fungus. Candida albicans overgrowth can lead to symptoms like white, thick discharge and itching in the vaginal area.
Choice B rationale: Lactobacillus acidophilus is a bacterium associated with maintaining vaginal health rather than causing yeast infections.
Choice C rationale: Escherichia coli is a bacteria that can cause different types of infections but are not typically associated with yeast vaginitis.
Choice D rationale: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a bacteria and does not cause yeast vaginitis despite having similar presentation such as pus discharge per vaginally.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Cri du chat syndrome involves a high-pitched cry in infants and other distinct physical and developmental features, but it doesn't present with the described symptoms.
Choice B rationale: Klinefelter syndrome, characterized by an extra X chromosome (XXY) in males, typically presents with small testicles, gynecomastia (enlarged breast tissues), sexual dysfunction, and altered body proportions, such as long legs and a shorter trunk, aligning with the client's symptoms.
Choice C rationale: Patau syndrome (Trisomy 13) manifests with severe developmental issues, facial abnormalities, and other physical malformations, but the described symptoms are not typically associated with this syndrome.
Choice D rationale: Turner syndrome involves females with a missing or partially missing X chromosome (45, X), resulting in specific physical features and medical problems not consistent with the described symptoms in a male client.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: PID is not associated with meningitis, which is an infection or inflammation of the meninges.
Choice B rationale: Chronic PID typically involves long-term inflammation of the pelvic organs, including the fallopian tubes and ovaries.
Choice C rationale: This condition refers to genital warts caused by HPV, not directly related to PID.
Choice D rationale: Dysplasia refers to abnormal cell growth or development and isn't directly associated with PID.
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