A 23-year-old sexually active female presents with white copious discharge and itch and is diagnosed with yeast vaginitis. This condition is caused by overgrowth of which
microorganism?

Candida albicans

Lactobacillus acidophilus

Escherichia coli

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale: Yeast vaginitis, commonly known as a yeast infection, is typically caused by an overgrowth of Candida albicans, a type of fungus. Candida albicans overgrowth can lead to symptoms like white, thick discharge and itching in the vaginal area.

Choice B rationale: Lactobacillus acidophilus is a bacterium associated with maintaining vaginal health rather than causing yeast infections.

Choice C rationale: Escherichia coli is a bacteria that can cause different types of infections but are not typically associated with yeast vaginitis.

Choice D rationale: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a bacteria and does not cause yeast vaginitis despite having similar presentation such as pus discharge per vaginally.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection but must not necessarily be reported to the public health department.

Choice B rationale: Genital herpes should not be reported to the public health department.

Choice C rationale: Gonorrhea is a reportable disease, meaning that health care providers must notify the public health department of any confirmed cases. This helps to prevent the spread of the infection and provide treatment and counseling to the affected individuals and their partners.

Choice D rationale: Infectious mononucleosis should not be reported to the public health department.

A. the patient must receive insulin therapy to prevent ketoacidosis B. the patient has islet cell antibodies that have destroyed the pancreas's ability to produce insulin C. the patient may have sufficient endogenous insulin to prevent ketosis but is at risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome D. the patient has minimal or absent endogenous insulin secretion and requires daily insulin injections

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale: The patient with type 2 diabetes admitted with pneumonia might not necessarily need insulin therapy to prevent ketoacidosis.

Choice B rationale: Type 2 diabetes doesn't typically involve islet cell antibodies destroying the pancreas's ability to produce insulin.

Choice C rationale: In this scenario, the patient might have enough endogenous insulin to prevent ketosis but could be at risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome due to illness-induced stress.

Choice D rationale: Type 2 diabetes often involves some degree of endogenous insulin secretion, and not all patients require daily insulin injections.

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A 23-year-old sexually active female presents with white copious discharge and itch and is diagnosed with yeast vaginitis. This condition is caused by overgrowth of which microorganism?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client comes to the outpatient department complaining of vaginal discharge, dysuria, and genital irritation. Suspecting a sexually transmitted disease (STD), Dr. Smith orders diagnostic tests of the vaginal discharge. Which STD must be reported to the public health department?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Which statement would be correct for a patient with type 2 diabetes who was admitted to the hospital with pneumonia?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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A 23-year-old sexually active female presents with white copious discharge and itch and is diagnosed with yeast vaginitis. This condition is caused by overgrowth of which
microorganism?