A 23 weeks pregnant client calls the clinic and reports leakage of vaginal fluid.
What should be the appropriate response by the nurse?
“We can wait until your next appointment to check you.”.
“As long as the baby is still moving around, there is nothing to worry about.”.
“Go to the hospital right away.”.
“Call back in 2 hours and tell me if there is any change in the leakage.”.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Waiting until the next appointment could potentially put both the mother and the baby at risk. Leakage of vaginal fluid could indicate premature rupture of membranes, which can lead to infection or premature labor.
Choice B rationale
While fetal movement is a good sign, it does not rule out potential complications associated with leakage of vaginal fluid. Therefore, this advice could lead to a delay in necessary medical intervention.
Choice C rationale
This is the most appropriate response. Leakage of vaginal fluid in a pregnant woman could be a sign of premature rupture of membranes, which can lead to complications such as infection or premature labor. Immediate medical attention is necessary to assess the situation and take appropriate action.
Choice D rationale
Asking the client to wait and see if the leakage changes could potentially delay necessary medical intervention. It’s important to seek immediate medical attention to assess the situation and take appropriate action.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Glipizide is a sulfonylurea medication used in Type 2 Diabetes to sensitize pancreatic beta cells and stimulate insulin release. It helps control blood sugar levels by prompting your pancreas to produce insulin. This medication is effective only in people whose bodies produce insulin naturally.
Choice B rationale
Glipizide does not replace insulin that is not being produced by your pancreas. Instead, it stimulates the pancreas to release insulin.
Choice C rationale
Glipizide does not absorb excess carbohydrates in your system. Its primary action is to stimulate the release of insulin from the pancreas.
Choice D rationale
Glipizide does not prevent your liver from destroying your insulin. Its main function is to stimulate the pancreas to release insulin, which helps control blood sugar levels.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A recent history of stressful, positive life events is not a primary risk factor for depression. While any significant life change can trigger stress and potentially contribute to depression, it is typically negative or traumatic events that are most strongly associated with an increased risk of depression.
Choice B rationale
Being male and over the age of 80 is a primary risk factor for depression. Older adults, particularly those with chronic medical conditions, are at an increased risk of depression. Additionally, while women are more likely than men to experience depression at younger ages, the gender gap narrows with age.
Choice C rationale
Being an only child is not a primary risk factor for depression. While family history can play a role in depression risk, it is typically a history of depression in first-degree relatives that is most strongly associated with an increased risk.
Choice D rationale
Having elevated levels of serotonin is not a primary risk factor for depression. In fact, it is typically low levels of serotonin that are associated with an increased risk of depression. Informed consent Explore
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