Your patient, post-operative from a gastrointestinal surgery, presents with a temperature of 103.6 'F, heart rate 120, blood pressure 72/42, increased white blood cell count, and respirations of 21. An IV fluid bolus is ordered STAT.

Which of the following findings indicate that the patient is progressing to septic shock? Select all that apply:

Patient requires Metoprolol (Lopresor) STAT

Patient requires Norepinephrine to maintain a mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mmHg despite fluid replacement

Serum lactate less than 2 mmol/L

Blood pressure of 70/34 after the fluid bolus

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : B,D

Choice A rationale
The need for Metoprolol (Lopresor) STAT does not necessarily indicate progression to septic shock. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure, heart failure, and angina. While it may be used in the management of sepsis to control heart rate, its use does not specifically indicate progression to septic shock.
Choice B rationale
The need for Norepinephrine to maintain a mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mmHg despite fluid replacement is a strong indicator of septic shock. Norepinephrine is a vasopressor, a type of medication used to increase blood pressure. In septic shock, vasopressors are often required to maintain adequate blood pressure and organ perfusion despite aggressive fluid resuscitation.
Choice C rationale
A serum lactate level less than 2 mmol/L is generally not indicative of septic shock. Elevated lactate levels can indicate tissue hypoperfusion, a condition that may occur in septic shock. However, a level less than 2 mmol/L is typically considered within the normal range.
Choice D rationale
A blood pressure of 70/34 after the fluid bolus could indicate progression to septic shock. In septic shock, despite aggressive fluid resuscitation, blood pressure often remains dangerously low, which can lead to inadequate blood flow to the organs.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Implementing a smoking cessation program, while beneficial for overall health and cardiovascular risk reduction, is not the primary therapeutic goal for secondary hypertension. Secondary hypertension is high blood pressure caused by an underlying condition. Therefore, the primary goal is to treat the underlying condition.
Choice B rationale
Treating the specific etiological disease is the primary therapeutic goal for secondary hypertension. By treating the underlying cause, blood pressure can often be lowered or returned to normal.
Choice C rationale
Initiating a rapid weight-loss program is not the primary therapeutic goal for secondary hypertension. While weight loss can help lower blood pressure in general, the primary goal in secondary hypertension is to treat the underlying cause.
Choice D rationale
Starting a rigorous exercise regimen, while beneficial for overall health and cardiovascular risk reduction, is not the primary therapeutic goal for secondary hypertension. The primary goal is to treat the underlying condition causing the high blood pressure.

A. A patient who experienced dizziness after the first dose of captopril. B. A patient exhibiting new-onset confusion, restlessness, and cool, clammy skin. C. A patient on oxygen therapy with bilateral crackles at the lung bases. D. A patient on IV nesiritide (Natrecor) with a blood pressure reading of 100/62.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale
While dizziness after the first dose of captopril can be concerning, it is not uncommon as the body adjusts to the medication. It is important to monitor this patient, but they are not the highest priority.
Choice B rationale
A patient exhibiting new-onset confusion, restlessness, and cool, clammy skin should be prioritized for assessment. These symptoms could indicate a serious condition such as shock or decreased cardiac output. This patient may be experiencing a rapid decline in condition and should be assessed immediately.
Choice C rationale
While a patient on oxygen therapy with bilateral crackles at the lung bases may have worsening heart failure, they are not the highest priority if they are stable. Crackles at the lung bases are a common finding in heart failure and indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs.
Choice D rationale
A patient on IV nesiritide (Natrecor) with a blood pressure reading of 100/62 is not the highest priority. While this blood pressure is on the lower side, it is not critically low.
Nesiritide can cause hypotension, so this patient should be monitored, but they are not the highest priority if they are stable.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

What is the primary therapeutic goal for secondary hypertension?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Upon receiving a change-of-shift report about four patients in a heart failure unit, which patient should the nurse prioritize for assessment?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

After the shift change, which patient in the emergency department should the nurse prioritize for assessment?

A patient with heart failure has recently started taking Digoxin (Lanoxin), Furosemide (Lasix), and Captopril. Which finding by the home health nurse is a priority to communicate to the healthcare provider?

A 73-year-old patient has increased pulmonary pressure resulting in right heart failure. What could be a potential cause for the right heart to fail?

A newborn child has been diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot. What symptoms would the nurse expect to observe in this child?

In the context of interprofessional care of the client and family, where should a nurse position the stethoscope on the chest to assess a client’s apical heart rate?

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension. Which result is most important to communicate to the health care provider?