While conducting the health assessment, the nurse instructs the client about secondary prevention activities. What information did the nurse most likely provide to this client?

The immunization schedule recommended for the client's age.
The need for regular mammogram screening to identify breast cancer lesions.
The need for consistent use of seat belts when in a motor vehicle.
The impact of annual vision examinations on personal health and safety.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice a reason:
Immunization schedules are typically considered a part of primary prevention. They are intended to prevent diseases before they occur by using vaccines to provide immunity against infections.
Choice b reason:
Regular mammogram screenings are a form of secondary prevention. They are used to detect breast cancer lesions early before symptoms appear, which can lead to more effective treatment and better outcomes.
Choice c reason:
The consistent use of seat belts is a primary prevention strategy. It is a proactive measure to prevent injuries in the event of a motor vehicle accident.
Choice d reason:
Annual vision examinations can be considered part of secondary prevention if they are used to detect vision problems or eye diseases in their early stages. However, they can also be seen as primary prevention because they help maintain and protect eye health before issues arise.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Tracheal sounds are harsh, high-pitched breath sounds typically heard over the trachea in the neck. They are not expected to be heard over the peripheral lung fields of a young adult during a routine lung auscultation.
Choice B Reason:
Vesicular breath sounds are the normal sounds heard over most of the lung fields. They are characterized by a soft, low-pitched, rustling sound during inhalation and are softer during exhalation. These sounds are created by air moving through the smaller airways such as the bronchioles and alveoli.
Choice C Reason:
Bronchovesicular sounds are heard over the major bronchi and are characterized by a moderate pitch and intensity. They are typically heard between the first and second intercostal spaces at the sternal border anteriorly and between the scapulae posteriorly, not over most of the lung fields.
Choice D Reason:
Bronchial breath sounds are high-pitched and louder than vesicular sounds, with a hollow quality, and are normally heard over the manubrium. If heard over the peripheral lung fields, they may indicate lung consolidation or other abnormalities.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is d) Stage II.
Choice a reason:
Stage IV pressure ulcers are the most severe, with full-thickness skin loss and exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. Signs of stage IV include large-scale tissue loss, possibly including slough or eschar, and may include undermining and tunneling. The scenario described does not indicate such an advanced stage, as there is no mention of exposed deeper tissues or structures.
Choice b reason:
Stage III pressure ulcers involve full-thickness skin loss, potentially affecting subcutaneous tissue but not extending to underlying muscle or bone. The wound may have a crater-like appearance. The described condition does not match stage III, as there is no indication of the ulcer extending into subcutaneous tissue.
Choice c reason:
Stage I pressure ulcers present with intact skin and non-blanchable redness of a localized area usually over a bony prominence. The skin may be painful, firm, soft, warmer, or cooler compared to adjacent tissue. In the given scenario, the skin is not intact, ruling out stage I.
Choice d reason:
Stage II pressure ulcers are characterized by partial-thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough. They may also present as intact or ruptured blisters. The description of the skin condition with erythema, serosanguineous drainage, and a blister-like appearance aligns with a stage II pressure ulcer.
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