While caring for a client in labor, which assessment finding best indicates fetal well-being to the nurse?

Presence of late decelerations with each contraction during monitoring

Increased fetal movement between contractions

Fetal heart rate of 160 beats per minute with moderate variability

Fetal heart rate consistently below 120 beats per minute with no accelerations

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. "Presence of late decelerations with each contraction during monitoring."
Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can lead to fetal hypoxia and distress. This is not a reassuring sign.

B. "Increased fetal movement between contractions."
While fetal movement is a positive sign, it is not the best indicator of fetal well-being in labor. Continuous FHR monitoring provides a better assessment.

C. "Fetal heart rate of 160 beats per minute with moderate variability."
A normal fetal heart rate (FHR) is 110–160 bpm, and moderate variability (6–25 bpm fluctuations) indicates a well-oxygenated fetus with an intact autonomic nervous system.

D. "Fetal heart rate consistently below 120 beats per minute with no accelerations."
A persistent FHR below 110 bpm (bradycardia) or minimal variability suggests possible fetal compromise.

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Correct Answer is []

Explanation

Condition: Postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH)

Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss ≥ 500 mL after vaginal delivery or ≥ 1000 mL after cesarean delivery. In this case, the client has heavy bleeding, large clots, and lightheadedness, which are key indicators of excessive postpartum blood loss.

Risk Factors

1. Fetal Macrosomia: The baby weighs 9 lbs 4 oz (4196 grams), which is considered macrosomia (birth weight > 4000 g). Large fetal size increases the risk of uterine overdistension, which can impair uterine contractions and lead to uterine atony, the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.

2. Uterine Atony: The nurse initially noted a boggy uterus that required massage to become firm. Uterine atony occurs when the uterus fails to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. This is the leading cause of PPH.

3. Prolonged Labor: A prolonged labor can cause uterine fatigue, reducing the uterus's ability to contract properly after delivery, thereby increasing the risk of uterine atony and PPH.

Assessment Findings

1. Heavy vaginal bleeding: The client has heavy bleeding with three quarter-sized clots, which is abnormal postpartum and indicates excessive blood loss.

2. Blood pressure: The client’s BP is 150/86 mmHg, which may indicate compensatory vasoconstriction due to ongoing blood loss. If hemorrhage continues, hypotension may develop.

3. Urine output: The client did not feel the urge to void, and catheterization drained 450 mL of urine. A full bladder can prevent proper uterine contraction, worsening uterine atony and bleeding.

A. Negative for protein on a urine dipstick: B. Blood pressure of 150/96 mmHg C. Elevated ALT/AST D. Blood pressure of 162/112 mmHg E. Seizures

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"C"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"B"},"E":{"answers":"C"}}

Explanation

Preeclampsia:

Blood pressure of 150/96 mmHg: A BP of ≥140/90 mmHg on two occasions at least 4 hours apart after 20 weeks of gestation in a previously normotensive client is diagnostic of preeclampsia.

Preeclampsia with Severe Features:

Blood pressure of 162/112 mmHg: Severe hypertension is ≥160/110 mmHg on two occasions at least 4 hours apart. This is a criterion for severe preeclampsia, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications like eclampsia or stroke.

Elevated liver enzymes (ALT/AST > 2x the upper limit of normal) are indicative of severe preeclampsia due to hepatic involvement. This can progress to HELLP syndrome, increasing the risk of liver rupture and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

Neither:

Negative for protein on a urine dipstick: Preeclampsia is typically diagnosed with proteinuria (≥300 mg in 24 hours or protein/creatinine ratio ≥0.3). A negative urine dipstick means proteinuria is absent, making preeclampsia unlikely. However, preeclampsia can also be diagnosed without proteinuria if other systemic features (e.g., thrombocytopenia, renal dysfunction) are present.

Seizures in a client with preeclampsia indicate eclampsia, which is a medical emergency requiring magnesium sulfate to prevent further seizures. If the client had no preeclampsia, the seizures could be due to another cause (e.g., epilepsy, metabolic disturbance).

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While caring for a client in labor, which assessment finding best indicates fetal well-being to the nurse?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

35-year-old postpartum client. Select the condition, risk factors and assessment findings that the client may be experiencing.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

G1P1, 37 weeks' gestation patient with a scheduled nonstress test (NST) As the nurse, you can identify whether the following findings are indicative of preeclampsia, preeclampsia with severe features, or neither. Select at least one answer in each row.

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"C"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"B"},"E":{"answers":"C"}}

Explanation

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