While assessing a patient who gave birth 5 hours ago, the nurse finds that the woman has completely saturated: pad within 15 minutes. What is the nurse's first action?

Assess the woman's fundus and massage it if boggy

Assess the woman's pulse and BP for signs of hypovolemic shock

Call the woman's primary healthcare provider

Begin an IV infusion of Ringer's lactate solution and administer oxytocin

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Assess the woman's fundus and massage it if boggy:
A saturated pad within 15 minutes after delivery suggests a hemorrhage, and the first priority in this situation is to assess the fundus. If the fundus is boggy (soft and not contracted), it is a sign of uterine atony, which is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Massaging the fundus helps stimulate uterine contraction, which can help stop the bleeding.

B) Assess the woman's pulse and BP for signs of hypovolemic shock:
While it is important to monitor vital signs for signs of hypovolemic shock (e.g., increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and pale skin), this action would not be the first priority in managing a postpartum hemorrhage. The immediate focus should be on stopping the bleeding by addressing uterine atony. Hypovolemic shock assessment is important, but it comes after the initial steps of managing hemorrhage.

C) Call the woman's primary healthcare provider:
Calling the provider may be necessary if the bleeding does not stop after initial interventions. However, it should not be the first action. The nurse should first assess the uterus and attempt to stop the bleeding by massaging the fundus before calling the provider.

D) Begin an IV infusion of Ringer's lactate solution and administer oxytocin:
Starting an IV infusion and administering oxytocin may be part of the treatment for postpartum hemorrhage, but the first action should be to assess and manage the fundus. Oxytocin can help contract the uterus, but massaging the fundus is the immediate intervention. Intravenous fluids and medications should be initiated once the uterus is assessed and massaged, especially if bleeding persists.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) A rubella injection is advised:
Since the rubella titer is non-immune, the woman is not protected against rubella, which is important to address during the postpartum period. The rubella vaccine is typically given to women who are non-immune to rubella after childbirth, but it is contraindicated during pregnancy because it is a live vaccine. The best action in this case would be to administer the rubella vaccine to the postpartum woman before discharge, with instructions to avoid becoming pregnant for at least 28 days after vaccination to prevent harm to a future fetus.

B) A blood transfusion is advised:
The hematocrit of 30% indicates that the woman has mild anemia, but it does not require immediate intervention like a blood transfusion. Normal hematocrit levels for postpartum women typically range between 32% and 42%. A transfusion would be indicated if the hematocrit were much lower (usually below 20-25%) or if there were symptoms of significant blood loss, which are not indicated in this case.

C) The nurse should contact the provider for an antibiotic order:
There is no indication from the provided laboratory results or the scenario that the woman requires antibiotics. Group B Streptococcus (GBS) was negative, which eliminates the need for prophylactic antibiotics. There is no mention of any infection risk requiring an antibiotic prescription, and since her GBS result is negative, antibiotics are not warranted.

D) RhoGAM injection should be administered within 72 hours:
RhoGAM (Rh immunoglobulin) is typically administered to a woman with Rh-negative blood who has given birth to an Rh-positive baby to prevent Rh sensitization in future pregnancies. In this case, the woman has an Rh-positive blood type (A+), so she does not need RhoGAM. RhoGAM would only be necessary if the woman had an Rh-negative blood type, which she does not.

A. Fundus below the symphysis and not palpable B. Moderate, bright red lochia. C. Breasts warm, firm and tender D. Laceration slightly red and puffy

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Fundus below the symphysis and not palpable:
The process of involution refers to the shrinking and returning of the uterus to its normal size and position after delivery. By postpartum day 14, the uterus should be largely involuted, with the fundus no longer palpable above the pubic symphysis. This is a normal finding, as the uterus typically shrinks to its pre-pregnancy size over this period. The fundus should be at or below the symphysis pubis and should not be palpable after about two weeks postpartum, indicating that the involution process is proceeding as expected.

B) Moderate, bright red lochia:
While bright red lochia (also known as lochia rubra) is common during the first few days postpartum, by postpartum day 14, lochia should have transitioned to a serosa (pinkish or brownish) or alba (white or yellowish) appearance. Bright red lochia on day 14 would suggest a possible issue, such as retained placental fragments or uterine atony, and would require further evaluation.

C) Breasts warm, firm and tender:
Breast tenderness and firmness can be normal in the early postpartum period, especially as milk comes in. However, by postpartum day 14, if the breasts remain tender and warm, this could indicate mastitis or engorgement that hasn't been resolved. While some tenderness may still occur, it should have decreased by this point. If tenderness persists, further assessment would be needed.

D) Laceration slightly red and puffy:
Postpartum lacerations or episiotomy sites should begin to heal within the first few days, but slight redness and swelling might still be present at two weeks. However, puffiness or continued redness after 14 days may indicate poor healing, infection, or other complications, which requires further evaluation and intervention. Normal healing should show a decrease in redness and swelling by this time.

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While assessing a patient who gave birth 5 hours ago, the nurse finds that the woman has completely saturated: pad within 15 minutes. What is the nurse's first action?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The laboratory results for a postpartum woman are as follows: blood type: A + rubella: non-immune hematocrit: 30% GBS: negative How would the nurse best interpret these data?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which documentation on a woman's chart after postpartum day 14 indicates a normal involution process?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A patient delivered 2 hours ago without medication. She is alert and active in bed but has not been out of bed yet. She states she needs to go the bathroom. What is the nurse's most appropriate response?

As part of the postpartum assessment, the nurse examines the breasts of a primiparous (first baby) breastfeeding woman who is 1 day postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate?

Rh, immune globulin will be ordered after birth if which situation occurs?

Thirty minutes after childbirth, a client's fundus is firm, shifted to the right of the midline above the umbilicus. Based on this finding, how will the nurse intervene?

A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a new mother. What is the most important instruction to address the prevention of postpartum infection?

Which of the following nursing interventions will promote comfort for a client with a labial first degree laceration? Select all that apply.

Which of the following findings would be most concerning to the nurse caring for a newborn?

A postpartum client is to receive the Rubella vaccine prior to discharge from the hospital. Why is she instructed to not become pregnant for 4 weeks after receiving this vaccine?