Which observation by the nurse indicates that a male client diagnosed with kidney stones is experiencing renal colic?

Pain while urinating

Oliguria with hypoalbuminemia

Incontinence

Severe flank pain radiating to the testicle

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   This is a symptom of urinary tract infection, not renal colic.
B.   This indicates kidney damage, which may occur as a complication of untreated kidney stones, but it's not a typical symptom of renal colic itself.
C.   This is not a symptom of renal colic.
D.   This is a classic symptom of renal colic, which is caused by the passage of a kidney stone through the ureter. The pain is often described as excruciating and can radiate to the groin or testicle.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. An INR of 5.0 indicates that the blood is significantly thinner than the therapeutic range (typically 2.0 to 3.0 for DVT treatment). Increasing the dose of warfarin would further increase the risk of bleeding.
B. Continuing with the prescribed dose of 2.5 mg is not appropriate at this time. The INR is above the safe therapeutic range, indicating a need for adjustment, not maintenance of the current dose.
C. While reducing the dose may be necessary, cutting it in half may not adequately address the high INR. The more appropriate action would involve holding the dose or significantly adjusting it based on the INR and clinical guidelines.
D. An INR of 5.0 is a critical value that suggests the client is at an increased risk of bleeding. The appropriate action in this case is to hold the warfarin dose and notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Depending on clinical protocols, the provider may recommend administering vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin, especially if there are signs of bleeding or if the INR is critically high.

A. 2 to 4 hours. B. 12 to 16 hours. C. 3 to 10 hours. D. 2 to 8 hours.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

This is the expected peak time for regular insulin. After administration, insulin will generally reach its maximum effectiveness in lowering blood glucose within this timeframe, making it crucial for the client to eat or take carbohydrates to prevent hypoglycemia.

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Which observation by the nurse indicates that a male client diagnosed with kidney stones is experiencing renal colic?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with a deep vein thrombosis has been receiving warfarin sodium 2.5 mg PO daily. The client's International Normalized Ratio (INR) is 5.0. The nurse is aware that the medication dose needs to be:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client's insulin dosage is 16 units of regular insulin in the morning. The client should be taught to expect the insulin peak within:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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