Which observation by the nurse indicates that a male client diagnosed with kidney stones is experiencing renal colic?

Pain while urinating

Oliguria with hypoalbuminemia

Incontinence

Severe flank pain radiating to the testicle

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   This is a symptom of urinary tract infection, not renal colic.
B.   This indicates kidney damage, which may occur as a complication of untreated kidney stones, but it's not a typical symptom of renal colic itself.
C.   This is not a symptom of renal colic.
D.   This is a classic symptom of renal colic, which is caused by the passage of a kidney stone through the ureter. The pain is often described as excruciating and can radiate to the groin or testicle.

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Correct Answer is ["37.5"]

Explanation

Drip rate (drops per minute) = (Volume to be infused (mL) x Drop factor) / Time (minutes)

3 hours = 3 * 60 = 180 minutes
Drip rate = (450 mL x 15 drops/mL) / 180 minutes Drip rate = 6750 / 180
Drip rate = 37.5 drops per minute
Therefore, the nurse should regulate the IV at a rate of 37.5 drops per minute.

A. notify the prescriber about the current dose of heparin the patient is receiving B. ask the nurse leaving to place a second IV & anticipate an order for IV 0.9 saline C. assess the patient's site for manifestations of infiltration D. read the pt's lab result back to the lab technician confirming the pt's name & date of birth E. notify the prescriber & anticipate an order to give protamine sulfate

Correct Answer is ["A","C"]

Explanation

A. The nurse should notify the prescriber about the current dose (7 mL/hr) because the patient is ordered 1600 units of heparin per hour. The current infusion rate needs to be assessed in relation to the aPTT result, especially if the aPTT indicates that the patient may be at risk for bleeding.
B. While having a second IV may be useful for administering fluids or medications in case of a bleeding emergency, there is no immediate indication for IV 0.9 saline in this scenario. The priority is to assess the heparin dosage and aPTT before making additional IV arrangements.
C. It’s important to assess the IV site for signs of infiltration, especially since the patient is on heparin therapy. Infiltration can affect the effectiveness of the medication and cause complications, so this assessment is vital.
D. While it is important to verify lab results, the nurse should primarily focus on addressing the current situation regarding the heparin infusion and the patient’s anticoagulation status rather than confirming lab results with the lab technician at this moment.
E. While protamine sulfate is an antidote to heparin, it is not warranted based solely on the aPTT result of 37 seconds. The normal aPTT range is typically around 30-40 seconds, depending on the laboratory standards, and the aPTT may not indicate that the patient requires reversal of heparin at this time.

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Which observation by the nurse indicates that a male client diagnosed with kidney stones is experiencing renal colic?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is ordered 450 ml of Normal Saline Solution over 3 hours. The drop factor on the IV tubing is 15 drops per ml. At what rate should the nurse regulate the IV?

Correct Answer is ["37.5"]

Explanation

Correct Answer is ["A","C"]

Explanation

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