Which electrocardiographic (ECG) change by a client with chest pain is most important for the nurse to report rapidly to the health care provider?
First-degree atrioventricular block
Inverted P wave
Sinus Tachycardia
ST-segment elevation
The Correct Answer is D
ST-segment elevation on an electrocardiogram (ECG) is a critical finding and should be reported rapidly to the health care provider. It is a hallmark ECG change seen in myocardial infarction (heart attack). When there is myocardial ischemia or injury (such as in a heart attack), the ST segment
elevates above the baseline in the affected leads of the ECG. This elevation indicates that there is an ongoing loss of oxygen and blood supply to a part of the heart muscle.
ST-segment elevation is a medical emergency because it suggests acute coronary syndrome (ACS), which can rapidly progress to a myocardial infarction if not promptly treated. Immediate intervention is needed to restore blood flow to the affected coronary artery and prevent further damage to the heart muscle.
The other options listed (A) First-degree atrioventricular block, (B) Inverted P wave, and (C) Sinus tachycardia, while significant in some situations, do not have the same urgency as ST-segment elevation in the context of chest pain. They may require medical attention, but they do not typically indicate an acute myocardial infarction or an immediate life-threatening condition. ST-segment elevation is a critical finding that requires rapid intervention to preserve heart muscle function and prevent complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
When a patient with dilated cardiomyopathy develops new onset atrial fibrillation (AF) that has been unresponsive to drug therapy, the nurse should prioritize patient education about anticoagulant therapy. Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of blood clots forming in the heart's atria due to the irregular and ineffective pumping of blood. These blood clots can potentially travel to other parts of the body, leading to serious complications such as stroke.
Anticoagulant therapy, also known as blood-thinning medication, is commonly prescribed for patients with atrial fibrillation to prevent the formation of blood clots. The most common anticoagulant prescribed for AF is warfarin or direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) such as apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran, or edoxaban. The nurse should educate the patient about the importance of taking the anticoagulant as prescribed and the need for regular monitoring of clotting times (INR for warfarin) to ensure the medication is effective and the dose is appropriate.
While other options listed in the choices may be relevant in specific situations, the priority in this case is to address the potential risk of stroke associated with atrial fibrillation and the importance of anticoagulant therapy to manage that risk effectively.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A patient with chronic kidney disease is at risk for hyperphosphatemia. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys' ability to excrete phosphate is impaired, leading to elevated levels of phosphate in the blood. This can further lead to calcium-phosphate imbalances, bone problems, and other complications associated with kidney disease. Managing phosphate levels is an essential aspect of the treatment plan for patients with chronic kidney disease.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today