Which electrocardiographic (ECG) change by a client with chest pain is most important for the nurse to report rapidly to the health care provider?
First-degree atrioventricular block
Inverted P wave
Sinus Tachycardia
ST-segment elevation
The Correct Answer is D
ST-segment elevation on an electrocardiogram (ECG) is a critical finding and should be reported rapidly to the health care provider. It is a hallmark ECG change seen in myocardial infarction (heart attack). When there is myocardial ischemia or injury (such as in a heart attack), the ST segment
elevates above the baseline in the affected leads of the ECG. This elevation indicates that there is an ongoing loss of oxygen and blood supply to a part of the heart muscle.
ST-segment elevation is a medical emergency because it suggests acute coronary syndrome (ACS), which can rapidly progress to a myocardial infarction if not promptly treated. Immediate intervention is needed to restore blood flow to the affected coronary artery and prevent further damage to the heart muscle.
The other options listed (A) First-degree atrioventricular block, (B) Inverted P wave, and (C) Sinus tachycardia, while significant in some situations, do not have the same urgency as ST-segment elevation in the context of chest pain. They may require medical attention, but they do not typically indicate an acute myocardial infarction or an immediate life-threatening condition. ST-segment elevation is a critical finding that requires rapid intervention to preserve heart muscle function and prevent complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
A) Potassium: CKD can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) as the kidneys lose their ability to excrete potassium effectively. Limiting potassium intake helps prevent elevated potassium levels and reduces the risk of cardiac arrhythmias.
B) Calcium: In CKD, impaired kidney function can lead to abnormalities in calcium and phosphorus metabolism, which can result in secondary hyperparathyroidism. Limiting calcium intake can help manage the imbalances in calcium and phosphorus levels.
(D) Phosphorus: Impaired kidney function in CKD leads to decreased phosphate excretion, resulting in hyperphosphatemia (high phosphorus levels). High phosphorus levels can lead to bone disease and other complications, so limiting phosphorus intake is essential.
Iron (C) is not typically limited in the diet of a client with CKD unless they have iron overload or specific conditions that warrant iron restriction.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The client's presentation of chest pain radiating to the left arm, sweating, shortness of breath, epigastric discomfort, cool and diaphoretic skin, tachycardia, and ST elevation on the electrocardiogram (ECG) are indicative of myocardial infarction (heart attack). These symptoms and findings are typical of acute coronary syndrome, specifically an ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).
Option A (Ischemic Stroke) is not the correct answer because the symptoms described in the client's presentation are primarily related to the cardiovascular system and not indicative of an ischemic stroke.
Option B (Chronic Stable Angina) is not the correct answer because chronic stable angina typically presents with chest pain on exertion or stress, and it usually subsides with rest or nitroglycerin. The client's symptoms of chest pain at rest, along with other findings, are more concerning for an acute cardiac event like a myocardial infarction.
Option D (Cardiogenic Shock) is a severe complication that can occur following a myocardial infarction, but the information provided in the scenario does not suggest that the client is in cardiogenic shock at this time. The client's blood pressure is not mentioned in the scenario, which is a crucial parameter to assess for cardiogenic shock.
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