Which age-related physiological change puts a client at higher risk for adverse medication complications?

Reduced muscle mass.

Decreased renal function.

Slowed gastrointestinal motility.

Thinning of the layers of the skin.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

This is because older adults have a reduced ability to excrete drugs and their metabolites through the kidneys, which can lead to drug accumulation and toxicity. Decreased renal function can also affect the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of many drugs, altering their absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination.

Choice A is wrong because reduced muscle mass does not directly affect drug metabolism or clearance, although it may affect the volume of distribution of some drugs that are highly protein-bound or lipophilic.

Choice C is wrong because slowed gastrointestinal motility does not increase the risk of adverse drug events in older adults, although it may affect the rate and extent of drug absorption.

Choice D is wrong because thinning of the layers of the skin does not affect drug metabolism or clearance, although it may increase the risk of skin infections or injuries.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client with expiratory wheezing after an albuterol treatment.

This indicates that the client has a severe bronchospasm that is not responding to the medication and may lead to respiratory failure.

The client needs immediate intervention to improve airway patency and oxygenation.

Choice A is wrong because a fasting blood sugar of 187 mg/dL is high but not life- threatening. The normal range for fasting blood sugar is less than 99 mg/dL.

The client may have diabetes or prediabetes and needs further evaluation and treatment, but this is not a priority over choice B.

Choice C is wrong because a client who has been called to surgery 2 hours early may need some preparation and education, but this is not an urgent situation.

The client can wait until the nurse has assessed the other clients.

Choice D is wrong because a blood pressure of 178/90 mmHg is elevated but not critical. The normal range for blood pressure is less than 120/80 mmHg.

The client needs a dose of atenolol, which is a beta

A. After fasting. B. Before breakfast. C. After a normal meal. D. Before glucose is consumed.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A two-hour postprandial glucose test is done to check your blood sugar level two hours after you eat a meal.

This test helps to diagnose diabetes or monitor its treatment. A normal blood sugar level for this test is less than 140 mg/dL.

Choice A is wrong because fasting means not eating for at least eight hours before the test. This is done for a fasting blood glucose test, not a postprandial one.

Choice B is wrong because before breakfast means before you eat anything in the morning. This is also done for a fasting blood glucose test, not a postprandial one.

Choice D is wrong because before glucose is consumed means before you drink a sugary liquid for a glucose tolerance test. This test measures how your body handles glucose after drinking it, not after eating a meal.

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Which age-related physiological change puts a client at higher risk for adverse medication complications?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse has received report on four clients. What client should the nurse see first?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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