Upon assessment of the lungs, the nurse hears continuous, high-pitched, musical sounds. This should be documented as:

Wheezes

Rhonchi

Fine crackles

Vesicular sounds

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A Reason:

Wheezes are continuous, high-pitched, musical sounds that occur when air flows through narrowed or obstructed airways1. They can be heard during both inspiration and expiration and are commonly associated with conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and bronchitis. Wheezes are a key indicator of airway obstruction and require prompt medical attention to address the underlying cause.

Choice B Reason:

Rhonchi are low-pitched, continuous sounds that resemble snoring or gurgling. They are typically caused by secretions or obstructions in the larger airways. Unlike wheezes, rhonchi are not high-pitched and do not have a musical quality. They are often heard in conditions like chronic bronchitis and can sometimes be cleared with coughing.

Choice C Reason:

Fine crackles are discontinuous, high-pitched popping sounds heard during inspiration. They are caused by the sudden opening of small airways and alveoli that are collapsed or filled with fluid. Fine crackles are often associated with conditions such as pneumonia, heart failure, and pulmonary fibrosis. They are not continuous sounds and do not have the musical quality of wheezes.

Choice D Reason:

Vesicular sounds are normal breath sounds heard over most of the lung fields. They are soft, low-pitched, and rustling in quality during inspiration and are fainter during expiration. Vesicular sounds indicate normal, unobstructed airflow through the small airways and alveoli. They are not continuous or high-pitched and do not have a musical quality.

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Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

The statement “Documentation of the event will include interventions attempted prior to initiating restraints” is correct. Proper documentation is crucial when restraints are used. This includes detailing the client’s behavior that necessitated the restraint, the interventions attempted before applying the restraint, the type of restraint used, and the time it was applied. This documentation ensures transparency and accountability, and it helps in evaluating the necessity and appropriateness of the restraint use.

Choice B Reason:

The statement “The physician must be present at the time of the restraint episode” is incorrect. While a physician’s order is required for the use of restraints, the physician does not need to be physically present at the time of the restraint episode. However, the physician must evaluate the client within a specified time frame after the restraint is applied, typically within one hour. This ensures that the restraint is medically justified and that the client’s condition is appropriately monitored.

Choice C Reason:

The statement “The client will be turned every 2 hours” is correct. Clients in restraints must be regularly repositioned to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers and to ensure their comfort. Turning the client every 2 hours is a standard practice to maintain skin integrity and promote circulation. This intervention is part of the comprehensive care plan for clients in restraints.

Choice D Reason:

The statement “The client will need to be monitored every one-half hour” is correct. Frequent monitoring of clients in restraints is essential to ensure their safety and well-being. This includes checking for signs of distress, ensuring that the restraints are not causing harm, and assessing the client’s vital signs5. Monitoring every 30 minutes helps in promptly addressing any issues that may arise and ensures that the restraints are used safely and effectively.

A. Promote interaction with others. B. Encourage participation in group therapy activities. C. Decrease their anxiety and increase trust. D. Improve their relationship with their parents.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Promote interaction with others.

While promoting interaction with others is important for clients with schizophrenia, it is not the primary priority. Social interaction can help improve social skills and reduce isolation, but it should come after establishing a sense of safety and trust. Clients with schizophrenia often experience significant anxiety and mistrust, which need to be addressed first to create a stable foundation for further therapeutic interventions.

Choice B Reason:

Encourage participation in group therapy activities.

Encouraging participation in group therapy activities is beneficial for clients with schizophrenia as it can provide support and help them develop social skills. However, similar to promoting interaction with others, this goal is secondary to decreasing anxiety and building trust. Clients need to feel safe and trust their caregivers before they can effectively engage in group therapy.

Choice C Reason:

Decrease their anxiety and increase trust.

This is the correct response. Decreasing anxiety and increasing trust are fundamental goals in the care of clients with schizophrenia. High levels of anxiety and mistrust can exacerbate symptoms and hinder the effectiveness of other therapeutic interventions. Establishing a trusting relationship and reducing anxiety can create a more stable and supportive environment, which is essential for the client’s overall well-being and progress.

Choice D Reason:

Improve their relationship with their parents.

Improving the client’s relationship with their parents can be an important aspect of their overall treatment plan, especially if family dynamics contribute to their condition. However, this goal is not the immediate priority. Addressing the client’s anxiety and building trust should come first, as these are critical for the client’s stability and ability to engage in family therapy effectively.

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Upon assessment of the lungs, the nurse hears continuous, high-pitched, musical sounds. This should be documented as:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

When placing an agitated client in restraints, the nurse understands that which of the following must occur?

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following would be a priority nursing goal for this client’s care?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse understands that whether or not a client experiences a crisis as a result of a stressful situation depends on:

A client diagnosed with an Anxiety Disorder tells a nurse that being in crowds creates thoughts of losing control and the need to suddenly leave. What should the nurse recommend as an effective, non-pharmacological therapy for managing the client’s symptoms of anxiety?

Which action should the nurse take prior to educating clients about relaxation techniques?

A nurse would expect to administer which of the following medications to a client who is escalating to the point of a possible assault?

The nurse calculates that a patient must receive 1.3 mL of an anti-infective agent. The dose is ordered IM. Which of the following choices demonstrates safe, evidence-based practice?

A nurse in orientation is rotating to a psychiatric unit where they observe a client in seclusion. Which of the following statements by the nurse’s preceptor best explains the use of seclusion on a unit?

The nurse is teaching a client about lorazepam. The nurse should instruct the client to expect which of the following side effects?

The nurse must give 25 micrograms of fentanyl IVP X1 dose. Fentanyl is available in an ampule 100 micrograms per 2m How many mL will the nurse give for the correct dose? round to the nearest tenth. Use a preceding zero if necessary. Do not use trailing zeros.