The nurse is scheduling a hysterosalpingogram test for a patient. When planning the test, which of the following information from the patient’s history will be needed?
The type of contraceptive being used by the patient and her partner.
The number of past pregnancies the patient has had.
The patient’s age of menarche.
History of iodine allergy.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
The type of contraceptive used is not directly relevant for a hysterosalpingogram test. The test focuses on the structure and patency of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes, not contraceptive history.
Choice B rationale
While the number of past pregnancies might be clinically relevant, it does not directly impact the hysterosalpingogram procedure. This test is typically used to evaluate tubal patency and uterine abnormalities regardless of pregnancy history.
Choice C rationale
The patient's age of menarche is not pertinent to a hysterosalpingogram test. Menarche age relates more to puberty and menstrual cycle history, which are not focal points of this imaging procedure.
Choice D rationale
Iodine allergy is crucial to identify before a hysterosalpingogram, as the procedure often involves the use of an iodine-based contrast dye. Identifying allergies helps prevent potential allergic reactions to the dye.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Calculating the estimated date of birth involves determining the gestational age. Gestational age is crucial for monitoring fetal development and timing prenatal care.
Choice B rationale
Obtaining the client’s personal and family medical history helps identify genetic risks, potential complications, and health conditions that may affect pregnancy and delivery.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining information about prior pregnancies provides insight into potential risks and outcomes. Previous pregnancy complications can indicate risks for the current pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
Checking the client’s urine with a reagent strip screens for urinary tract infections, protein, and glucose levels. UTIs can cause complications, while protein and glucose levels help monitor maternal health.
Choice E rationale
Scheduling the client for prenatal laboratory testing, such as blood work and ultrasounds, helps assess maternal and fetal health. Tests like blood type, Rh factor, and infectious diseases are essential for prenatal care.
Choice F rationale
Discussing chorionic villus sampling is not necessary at 18 weeks of gestation. CVS is typically performed between 10-13 weeks for early genetic testing.
Correct Answer is ["B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Amniocentesis assesses fetal lung maturity, genetic disorders, and infections, not preeclampsia. Preeclampsia diagnosis involves blood pressure, proteinuria, and other lab tests. Normal blood pressure: <120/80 mm Hg. Proteinuria: >300 mg/day.
Choice B rationale
A non-stress test measures fetal heart rate response to movements, evaluating fetal well-being. Normal fetal heart rate: 110-160 bpm. Accelerations: 15 bpm increase for at least 15 seconds.
Choice C rationale
Chorionic villus sampling assesses chromosomal abnormalities, genetic disorders, not neural tube defects. Neural tube defect screening: maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein levels, ultrasound. Normal alpha-fetoprotein: 0.5-2.5 MoM.
Choice D rationale
A full bladder helps lift the uterus for better visualization during ultrasound, especially in early pregnancy. This improves image quality for assessing fetal development and other structures.
Choice E rationale
Oral glucose tolerance test assesses gestational diabetes by measuring blood glucose levels, not fetal activity. Normal fasting blood glucose: <95 mg/dL. 1-hour post-glucose: <180 mg/dL.
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