The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 76-year-old male client with chronic atrial fibrillation who has a CHA2DS2-VASC score of 2. Which medication would the nurse identify as most likely to be prescribed for the client?

Propranolol

Procainamide

Aspirin

Warfarin

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Propranolol: This is a beta-blocker, which may be used to control heart rate, but it does not address the risk of thromboembolism in atrial fibrillation.

B. Procainamide: This is an antiarrhythmic used for rhythm control, but it does not address stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation.

C. Aspirin: Although aspirin is sometimes used for stroke prevention, it is generally less effective than anticoagulation therapy in clients with higher CHA2DS2-VASC scores.

D. Warfarin: A CHA2DS2-VASC score of 2 indicates a moderate risk for stroke, and warfarin (or another anticoagulant) is indicated to reduce the risk of thromboembolic events.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]

Explanation

A. Bring the crash cart to the bedside: Essential for advanced cardiac life support (ACLS), including defibrillation and medications.

B. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation: High-quality CPR is critical to maintain circulation until defibrillation can occur.

C. Defibrillate the client: Defibrillation is the definitive treatment for ventricular fibrillation to restore a normal rhythm.

D. Administer adenosine (Adenocard) to assist in determining the rhythm: Adenosine is used for diagnosing or treating certain supraventricular tachycardias, not ventricular fibrillation.

E. Consider the "Hs and Ts": Identifying reversible causes of cardiac arrest (e.g., hypoxia, hypothermia, toxins) is part of the ACLS protocol.

A. Subdural hematoma B. Diffuse axonal injury C. Intracranial hemorrhage D. Epidural hematoma

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Subdural hematoma: Subdural hematomas develop more slowly and typically present a higher risk for delayed deterioration, but not usually within the first 24 hours.

B. Diffuse axonal injury: While severe, diffuse axonal injury typically causes a prolonged coma rather than immediate fatality within 24 hours.

C. Intracranial hemorrhage: This is severe but often depends on the size and location of the bleed.

D. Epidural hematoma: Epidural hematomas are associated with arterial bleeding and rapid deterioration due to increased intracranial pressure, making them the most fatal within 24 hours.

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The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 76-year-old male client with chronic atrial fibrillation who has a CHA2DS2-VASC score of 2. Which medication would the nurse identify as most likely to be prescribed for the client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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