The nurse is monitoring a client who has severe bone marrow suppression following antineoplastic drug therapy. Which is considered a principal early sign of infection?
Tachycardia
Elevated white blood cells
Fever
Diaphoresis
The Correct Answer is C
immunosuppression with no pool of white blood cells to fight against infection, fever occurs as a result of production of inflammatory markers against infection
B. In bone marrow suppression the white blood cells are low
A, D. Are general symptoms that could be as a result of other non-infective pathologies
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
C. Heparin is an indirect thrombin inhibitor that prevents clot formation. It does not dissolve existing clots.
A. The onset of action of heparin is immediate
B. The oral anticoagulants also don’t dissolve the clot
D. The nurse should also understand the pharmacology of the drugs she or he is administering.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Vancomycin is nephrotoxic and ototoxic and any ear fullness and rising serum creatinine levels should be reported. It also has a narrow therapeutic levels of 10-20mcg/ml and levels above that should be reported. The drug should be administered over 60 mins to prevent red man syndrome
A- Being nephrotoxic, restricting fluid intake could increase risk of renal damage
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