The nurse is leading an educational activity about ovarian cancer. Which client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer?
30-year-old woman taking hormonal contraceptives
30-year-old woman taking hormonal contraceptives
36-year-old woman who had her first child at age 22
45-year-old woman who has never been pregnant
The Correct Answer is D
Ovarian cancer risk is increased in women who have not been pregnant, have a family history of ovarian cancer, have a personal history of breast or colon cancer, and have inherited gene mutations such as BRCA1 and BRCA2.
Hormonal contraceptives, having children, and the age at which a woman had her first child have been associated with a reduced risk of ovarian cancer. However, these factors do not completely eliminate the risk. It is still possible for women taking hormonal contraceptives, women who have had children, and women who had their first child at an early age to develop ovarian cancer
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Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This statement shows that the client understands the potential side effects of the treatment and knows to report any unusual symptoms to their healthcare provider. This is important because brachytherapy can cause vaginal bleeding, fever, or abdominal pain, which may be signs of infection or other complications.
Option a is partially correct, as it is important for clients undergoing active brachytherapy to restrict activity and avoid vigorous movements to prevent the dislodgement of radiation sources. However, this statement alone does not indicate that the client understands the potential complications or knows when to report them to the healthcare provider.
Option b is not directly related to the client's treatment or potential complications and does not indicate an understanding of the precautions and potential complications associated with active brachytherapy.
Option d is not necessarily required, as the client may not need to be in a private room during active brachytherapy. This option does not directly relate to the precautions or potential complications of the treatment.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
If a couple has used at-home ovulation testing with basal body temperature and has not conceived, the first treatment option may depend on the underlying cause of infertility. However, the most common first-line treatment for infertility is selective estrogen receptor modulator clomiphene. This medication stimulates ovulation and can increase the chances of conception.
Surgery to reduce endometriosis may be considered if endometriosis is the underlying cause of infertility. However, surgery is not always successful and may not be the first option.
Intrauterine insemination (IUI) with sperm from the husband is another option that may be considered if the male partner has mild to moderate sperm abnormalities or if there is unexplained infertility. IUI involves placing washed sperm directly into the uterus during ovulation.
Assisted reproductive technologies (ART), such as in vitro fertilization (IVF), may be considered if other treatments have been unsuccessful or if there are more severe fertility issues. ART involves combining eggs and sperm outside of the body and transferring the resulting embryo(s) into the uterus.
The choice of treatment will depend on the underlying cause of infertility, the age of the couple, and other factors that may impact fertility. It is important for the couple to consult with a healthcare provider who specializes in fertility treatments to determine the best course of action.
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