The nurse is inspecting a male newborn's genitalia. Which action should the nurse avoid when conducting this assessment?
Inspecting if the urethral opening appears circular.
Retracting the foreskin over the glans to assess for secretions.
Palpating if testes are descended into the scrotal sac.
Inspecting the genital area for irritated skin.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Inspecting if the urethral opening appears circular. This is a correct action for the nurse to do, as it helps to identify any abnormalities in the urethral opening, such as hypospadias or epispadias, which are congenital defects where the opening is located on the underside or the top of the penis, respectively. • Choice B reason:
Retracting the foreskin over the glans to assess for secretions. This is an incorrect action for the nurse to avoid, as it can cause pain, bleeding, and infection in the newborn. The foreskin is usually adhered to the glans in newborns and should not be forcibly retracted. It will gradually loosen over time and can be retracted by the child himself when he is older. •
Choice C reason:
Palpating if testes are descended into the scrotal sac. This is a correct action for the nurse to do, as it helps to detect any undescended testes, which are more common in preterm infants and can increase the risk of infertility and testicular cancer later in life. • Choice D reason:
Inspecting the genital area for irritated skin. This is a correct action for the nurse to do, as it helps to identify any signs of diaper rash, fungal infection, or allergic reaction in the newborn's skin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
The diagram should be completed as follows:
Condition Most Likely Experiencing: B. Respiratory distress syndrome. Action to Take 1: C. Administer Surfactant as prescribed. Action to Take 2: Provide oxygen therapy as needed. Parameter to Monitor 1: B. Arterial blood gases. Parameter to Monitor 2: D. Oxygen saturation.
Conditions Explained
Choice A reason:
Hypoglycemia is a condition where the blood glucose level is too low. It can cause symptoms
such as jitteriness, lethargy, poor feeding, and seizures. However, hypoglycemia does not
explain the respiratory signs that the newborn is experiencing, such as tachypnea, grunting,
nasal flaring, and retractions. Acrocyanosis is also not a sign of hypoglycemia. Therefore,
choice A is incorrect.
Choice B reason:
Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is a condition where the lungs are not fully developed
and lack enough surfactant, a substance that helps the alveoli stay open and exchange
oxygen and carbon dioxide. It can cause symptoms such as tachypnea, grunting, nasal flaring,
retractions, and cyanosis. RDS is more common in premature infants, especially those born
before 37 weeks of gestation. Acrocyanosis can be a normal finding in the first 24 hours of
life, but it can also indicate poor perfusion due to respiratory compromise. Therefore, choice
B is the most likely condition that the newborn is experiencing.
Choice C reason:
Neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) is a condition where the newborn withdraws from
drugs that were exposed in utero. It can cause symptoms such as irritability, tremors, high-
pitched crying, poor feeding, vomiting, diarrhea, and sweating. However, NAS does not
explain the respiratory signs that the newborn is experiencing, such as tachypnea, grunting,
nasal flaring, and retractions. Acrocyanosis is also not a sign of NAS. Therefore, choice C is
incorrect.
Choice D reason:
Jaundice is a condition where the skin and sclerae turn yellow due to excess bilirubin in the
blood. It can be caused by various factors such as blood group incompatibility, hemolysis,
infection, or liver dysfunction. However, jaundice does not explain the respiratory signs that
the newborn is experiencing, such as tachypnea, grunting, nasal flaring, and retractions.
Acrocyanosis is also not a sign of jaundice.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is: d. Persistent fetal bradycardia below 100 bpm.
Choice A: Maternal pulse rate of 100 bpm
A maternal pulse rate of 100 beats per minute (bpm) is slightly elevated but not uncommon during labor due to the physical exertion and stress involved. The normal range for an adult’s resting heart rate is typically between 60 and 100 bpm. While it is important to monitor the maternal pulse, it is not an immediate cause for concern unless accompanied by other symptoms such as hypotension, chest pain, or signs of distress.
Choice B: Maternal blood pressure of 120/70 mm Hg
A maternal blood pressure of 120/70 mm Hg is within the normal range. Normal blood pressure for adults is generally considered to be around 120/80 mm Hg. This reading indicates that the mother is maintaining stable blood pressure during labor, which is a positive sign. Therefore, this does not require immediate reporting to the physician.
Choice C: Decrease in intensity of uterine contractions
A decrease in the intensity of uterine contractions can be concerning as it may indicate ineffective labor, which could prolong the delivery process. However, this is typically managed by adjusting oxytocin levels or other interventions and does not require immediate reporting unless it leads to other complications such as fetal distress.
Choice D: Persistent fetal bradycardia below 100 bpm
Persistent fetal bradycardia below 100 bpm is a significant concern and should be immediately reported to the physician. Normal fetal heart rate ranges from 110 to 160 bpm. Bradycardia, defined as a heart rate below 110 bpm, can indicate fetal distress, hypoxia, or other complications that may require urgent intervention to ensure the safety of the fetus. Persistent bradycardia, especially below 100 bpm, necessitates immediate medical attention to assess and address the underlying cause.
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