The nurse is examining an adult client within normal weight limit. The nurse notices that he has bilateral gynecomastia. Which of the following describes the nurse's best course of action?
Inform the client that his breast enlargement is benign, and normal for a man of his age
Explain that this condition may be the result of hormonal changes, and recommend that he see his physician.
Recommend that he alter his diet to include fewer fats and more lean proteins
Explain that gynecomastia in men is usually associated with prostate enlargement and recommend that he be thoroughly screened.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Inform the client that his breast enlargement is benign, and normal for a man of his age:
This choice is not appropriate because while gynecomastia can be benign, it should not be assumed without a proper medical evaluation. Gynecomastia can have various causes, including hormonal imbalances or underlying medical conditions. It's crucial to identify the cause through a medical assessment.
B. Explain that this condition may be the result of hormonal changes, and recommend that he see his physician:
This is the correct choice. Gynecomastia can indeed be caused by hormonal changes, but it can also be due to medications, certain health conditions, or hormonal imbalances. Therefore, the nurse should recommend a medical evaluation to determine the underlying cause and appropriate management.
C. Recommend that he alter his diet to include fewer fats and more lean proteins:
This choice is not relevant to gynecomastia. Gynecomastia is not typically caused by dietary factors, so altering the diet would not be a suitable response to this situation.
D. Explain that gynecomastia in men is usually associated with prostate enlargement and recommend that he be thoroughly screened:
This choice is incorrect. Gynecomastia is not directly associated with prostate enlargement. While both conditions can occur in older men, they are distinct medical issues. Screening for prostate enlargement is not indicated based solely on the presence of gynecomastia. Proper evaluation and assessment of each condition are necessary.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A shiny, pearly white color tympanic membrane: This is a normal finding. A healthy tympanic membrane often appears shiny and pearly white.
B. The presence of cerumen: This is a normal finding. Cerumen, or earwax, is a natural substance that helps protect the ear canal.
C. The presence of a cone of light: This is a normal finding. The cone of light is a reflection of the otoscope light on the tympanic membrane and is a normal variation.
D. A yellow or amber color to the tympanic membrane: This is considered an abnormal finding. A yellow or amber coloration of the tympanic membrane can indicate the presence of fluid or infection behind the eardrum, which may be a sign of otitis media or other ear conditions.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Maxillary sinusitis:
Explanation: The client's symptoms of facial pain, fever, malaise, swollen turbinates, purulent nasal discharge, and dull, throbbing pain in the cheeks and teeth on the right side, especially when palpated, are indicative of maxillary sinusitis. Maxillary sinusitis refers to the inflammation of the maxillary sinuses, which are located in the cheek area. The symptoms described align with a bacterial infection in this sinus.
B. Nasal polyps:
Explanation: Nasal polyps are soft, noncancerous growths on the lining of the nasal passages or sinuses. While they can cause nasal congestion and a runny nose, they do not typically present with the specific symptoms mentioned in the scenario, such as facial pain, fever, and purulent discharge.
C. Frontal sinusitis:
Explanation: Frontal sinusitis involves inflammation of the frontal sinuses located in the forehead area. Symptoms may include forehead pain, headache, and nasal discharge. However, the described symptoms in the scenario (dull, throbbing pain in the cheeks and teeth on the right side) are more characteristic of maxillary sinusitis.
D. Posterior epistaxis:
Explanation: Posterior epistaxis refers to a nosebleed that originates from the back of the nose, often due to bleeding from the sphenopalatine artery. While nosebleeds can cause blood drainage into the throat and result in a metallic taste, the other symptoms described in the scenario, such as facial pain, fever, and purulent discharge, are not indicative of posterior epistaxis.
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