The nurse is educating a first-time pregnant woman about preeclampsia.
Which symptoms are indicators of preeclampsia and should be reported to the healthcare provider? Select all that apply.
Chills and fever.
Lack of appetite.
Swollen hands.
Headache.
Blurred vision.
Frequent urination.
Correct Answer : C,D,E
Choice A rationale
Chills and fever are not typically associated with preeclampsia. They are more commonly seen in infections.
Choice B rationale
Lack of appetite is a non-specific symptom and can be associated with many conditions, but it is not a key indicator of preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale
Swollen hands can be a symptom of preeclampsia. This condition can cause sudden weight gain and swelling (edema), particularly in your face and hands.
Choice D rationale
Headaches are a common symptom of preeclampsia. They are often severe and may be accompanied by changes in vision.
Choice E rationale
Blurred vision is a symptom of preeclampsia. Other vision changes, such as sensitivity to light or temporary loss of vision, can also occur.
Choice F rationale
Frequent urination is not typically associated with preeclampsia. It is a common symptom in early and late pregnancy due to the growing uterus pressing on the bladder.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
If a patient suddenly experiences numbness and weakness on the right side of their body, including their arm and leg, and a distinct droop on the right side of the patient’s face, these are warning signs of a stroke. The nurse’s first course of action should be to initiate two large- bore IV catheters and review the inclusion criteria for IV fibrinolytic therapy. This is because rapid administration of fibrinolytic therapy can significantly improve outcomes in patients with acute ischemic stroke.
Choice B rationale
Continuous observation for transient episodes of neurologic dysfunction is important, but the immediate priority is to prepare for potential fibrinolytic therapy.
Choice C rationale
Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees and keeping the head and neck in neutral alignment can be beneficial in certain situations, but it is not the immediate priority in this scenario.
Choice D rationale
Administering aspirin can help prevent further clot formation and platelet aggregation in patients with acute coronary syndrome or those at high risk of cardiovascular disease.
However, in the case of a suspected stroke, immediate medical evaluation and potential fibrinolytic therapy are the priorities.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Offering the client oral fluids is important for hydration, but it is not directly related to the care of an indwelling urinary catheter. The UAP can offer fluids to the client, but this action is not specifically tied to the turning of the client or the care of the urinary catheter.
Choice B rationale
Feeding the client a snack is a task that the UAP may perform, but it is not directly related to the care of an indwelling urinary catheter. The UAP can provide a snack to the client, but this action is not specifically tied to the turning of the client or the care of the urinary catheter.
Choice C rationale
Assessing breath sounds is within the scope of practice for a nurse, not a UAP. While it’s important to monitor a client’s respiratory status, this action is not directly related to the care of an indwelling urinary catheter.
Choice D rationale
Emptying the urinary drainage bag is an appropriate action for the UAP to take each time the client is turned. This action helps to prevent infection, maintain accurate intake and output records, and ensure the comfort and dignity of the client.
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