The nurse is conducting an admission assessment on a school-age child with acute renal failure. Which are the primary clinical manifestations the nurse expects to find with this condition?
Bacteriuria and facial edema
Hematuria and pallor
Proteinuria and muscle cramps
Oliguria and hypertension
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason:
Bacteriuria, or the presence of bacteria in the urine, is not a primary clinical manifestation of acute renal failure. While facial edema can occur due to fluid retention, bacteriuria is more commonly associated with urinary tract infections. Acute renal failure primarily affects the kidneys’ ability to filter waste and regulate fluid and electrolytes, leading to symptoms such as oliguria and hypertension.
Choice B reason:
Hematuria, or blood in the urine, can be a symptom of various kidney conditions, but it is not a primary manifestation of acute renal failure1. Pallor, or paleness, can occur due to anemia, which may be a secondary complication of chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure. The primary symptoms of acute renal failure are related to the sudden decline in kidney function, such as oliguria and hypertension.
Choice C reason:
Proteinuria, or the presence of excess protein in the urine, is more commonly associated with chronic kidney disease or nephrotic syndrome rather than acute renal failure. Muscle cramps can occur due to electrolyte imbalances, but they are not primary manifestations of acute renal failure. The primary symptoms of acute renal failure include oliguria and hypertension.
Choice D reason:
Oliguria, or reduced urine output, and hypertension, or high blood pressure, are primary clinical manifestations of acute renal failure. Acute renal failure results in a sudden decline in kidney function, leading to the retention of waste products and fluids, which can cause oliguria and hypertension. These symptoms are key indicators of acute renal failure and require prompt medical attention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Offering peanut butter and water is not the best immediate action for treating hypoglycemia. Peanut butter is a protein-rich food that takes longer to digest and does not quickly raise blood sugar levels. Water does not contain any carbohydrates and will not help in raising blood sugar levels.
Choice B Reason:
Giving one tablespoon of ice cream is not the most effective way to treat hypoglycemia. While ice cream contains sugar, it also has fat, which slows down the absorption of sugar into the bloodstream. This delay can prevent the rapid correction of low blood sugar levels.
Choice C Reason:
Giving a hard candy lollipop to lick can provide some sugar, but it is not the most efficient method for quickly raising blood sugar levels. The amount of sugar in a lollipop may not be sufficient to correct hypoglycemia, and the slow consumption may delay the necessary rise in blood sugar.
Choice D Reason:
Providing 1/2 cup of juice followed by cheese with a cracker is the best action for treating hypoglycemia. Juice contains fast-acting carbohydrates that can quickly raise blood sugar levels. Following it with cheese and a cracker provides protein and fat, which help stabilize blood sugar levels and prevent them from dropping again.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
A 7-year-old child with diabetes insipidus and a urine specific gravity of 1.016 is not in immediate danger. Diabetes insipidus is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of severely diluted urine. A urine specific gravity of 1.016 is within the normal range (1.005 to 1.030). Therefore, this child does not require immediate assessment.
Choice B reason:
A 4-year-old child with asthma and a PCO2 of 37 mm Hg is also not in immediate danger. Asthma is a chronic condition that can cause difficulty breathing, but a PCO2 level of 37 mm Hg is within the normal range (35-45 mm Hg). This indicates that the child’s respiratory status is currently stable, and immediate assessment is not required.
Choice C reason:
A 1-year-old toddler with roseola and a temperature of 39°C (102.2°F) is experiencing a common viral infection that typically causes a high fever followed by a rash. While the fever is high, it is not uncommon for roseola and can be managed with antipyretics and supportive care. This child does not require immediate assessment.
Choice D reason:
A 10-year-old child with sickle cell anemia reporting 8 out of 10 chest pain is in immediate danger and requires urgent assessment. Chest pain in a child with sickle cell anemia can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe and potentially life-threatening complication. Acute chest syndrome is characterized by chest pain, fever, and respiratory distress, and it requires prompt medical intervention. Therefore, this child should be assessed first.
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