The nurse is caring for a patient who has diabetes and complains of chronic, burning leg pain even when taking oxycodone (OxyContin) twice daily. Which prescribed medication is the best choice for the nurse to administer as an adjuvant to decrease the patient's pain?

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

Gabapentin (Neurontin)

Hydrocodone-Acetaminophen (Norco)

Aspirin

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: This statement is false. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is not the best choice for the nurse to administer as an adjuvant to decrease the patient's pain, as acetaminophen is a mild analgesic that works by inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins, which are involved in inflammation and pain. Acetaminophen is not very effective for chronic, burning leg pain, which is likely caused by diabetic neuropathy, a nerve damage condition that affects the sensation and function of the legs.

Choice B reason: This statement is true. Gabapentin (Neurontin) is the best choice for the nurse to administer as an adjuvant to decrease the patient's pain, as gabapentin is an anticonvulsant that works by modulating the activity of calcium channels, which are involved in transmitting pain signals from the nerves to the brain. Gabapentin is effective for chronic, burning leg pain, as it can reduce the intensity and frequency of neuropathic pain.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. Hydrocodone-Acetaminophen (Norco) is not the best choice for the nurse to administer as an adjuvant to decrease the patient's pain, as hydrocodone-acetaminophen is a combination of an opioid analgesic and a mild analgesic that works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, and by inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins, respectively. Hydrocodone-acetaminophen is not very effective for chronic, burning leg pain, as it can cause tolerance, dependence, and addiction, and can also interact with oxycodone, which the patient is already taking.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. Aspirin is not the best choice for the nurse to administer as an adjuvant to decrease the patient's pain, as aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that works by inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins, which are involved in inflammation and pain. Aspirin is not very effective for chronic, burning leg pain, as it can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, ulcers, and kidney damage, and can also interact with other medications that the patient may be taking, such as anticoagulants or antiplatelets.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: This statement is false. A serum potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L is not a common side effect of furosemide. This value indicates hyperkalemia, or high blood potassium level, which can cause cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss, not retention.

Choice B reason: This statement is false. A serum sodium level of 142 mEq/L is not a common side effect of furosemide. This value is within the normal range of 135-145 mEq/L and does not indicate any problem with sodium balance. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes sodium loss, but it is usually compensated by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. A serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L is not a common side effect of furosemide. This value is within the normal range of 135-145 mEq/L and does not indicate any problem with sodium balance. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes sodium loss, but it is usually compensated by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.

Choice D reason: This statement is true. A serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is a common side effect of furosemide. This value indicates hypokalemia, or low blood potassium level, which can cause cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and metabolic alkalosis. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and potassium in the ascending loop of Henle, leading to potassium loss in the urine.

A. 1:00 PM B. 8:00 PM C. There is no peak action for this insulin D. 9:00 AM

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: 1:00 PM is not the correct time to monitor the patient for signs of hypoglycemia related to the insulin's peak action. Humalog is a rapid acting insulin that starts to work within 15 minutes, peaks in about an hour, and lasts for 2 to 4 hours. Therefore, the peak action of Humalog given at 8:00 AM would be around 9:00 AM, not 1:00 PM.

Choice B reason: 8:00 PM is also not the correct time to monitor the patient for signs of hypoglycemia related to the insulin's peak action. As explained in choice A, Humalog peaks in about an hour and lasts for 2 to 4 hours. Therefore, the effect of Humalog given at 8:00 AM would wear off by 12:00 PM, not 8:00 PM.

Choice C reason: There is no peak action for this insulin is an incorrect statement. Humalog does have a peak action, as described in choice A. The peak action of an insulin is the time when the insulin is most effective in lowering the blood glucose level. The peak action of an insulin can vary depending on the type, dose, and individual response of the patient.

Choice D reason: 9:00 AM is the correct time to monitor the patient for signs of hypoglycemia related to the insulin's peak action. Hypoglycemia is a condition of low blood glucose level, which can cause symptoms such as sweating, shaking, hunger, headache, dizziness, confusion, and loss of consciousness. Hypoglycemia can occur when the insulin dose is too high, the food intake is too low, or the physical activity is too high. The nurse should monitor the patient for signs of hypoglycemia around the peak action of the insulin, as this is when the blood glucose level is most likely to drop. The nurse should also teach the patient how to prevent, recognize, and treat hypoglycemia.

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The nurse is caring for a patient who has diabetes and complains of chronic, burning leg pain even when taking oxycodone (OxyContin) twice daily. Which prescribed medication is the best choice for the nurse to administer as an adjuvant to decrease the patient's pain?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is taking furosemide (Lasix) for management of mild hypertension. The nurse knows to assess laboratory results for a side effect of this diuretic. Select the lab value that matches a common side effect of this medication.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The patient received Humalog (rapid acting) insulin 5 units subcutaneously at 8:00 AM. The nurse plans to monitor this patient for signs of hypoglycemia at which time related to the insulin's peak action?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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