The nurse is caring for a client with infectious endocarditis. Which information obtained from the health history could have contributed to the development of the disease progress?
Hypertension treated with medications
Prostate surgery six months prior
Use of intravenous substances
Stroke diagnosed one year ago
The Correct Answer is C
A) Hypertension treated with medications
Hypertension (high blood pressure) itself is not a direct cause of infectious endocarditis. While untreated or poorly managed hypertension can contribute to cardiovascular complications, it is not typically a risk factor for developing infectious endocarditis. Infectious endocarditis is more commonly associated with conditions that directly involve the heart valves or blood stream, such as intravenous drug use, prior heart valve disease, or certain invasive procedures.
B) Prostate surgery six months prior
While certain surgeries, such as dental or urinary tract procedures, can increase the risk of infectious endocarditis due to transient bacteremia, prostate surgery by itself is not a major risk factor for this condition. Unless there was a complication during the surgery that resulted in bacteremia (e.g., infection), B is not the most likely contributor to the development of infectious endocarditis.
C) Use of intravenous substances
The use of intravenous (IV) substances, especially illicit drugs, is a major risk factor for the development of infectious endocarditis. Intravenous drug use, particularly when non-sterile needles or contaminated substances are used, can introduce bacteria directly into the bloodstream, leading to bacteremia.
D) Stroke diagnosed one year ago
While a history of stroke may indicate underlying cardiovascular disease or embolic events, it is not directly related to the development of infectious endocarditis. Stroke can occur as a complication of infectious endocarditis, particularly if emboli from infected valves travel to the brain. However, a prior stroke itself does not directly contribute to the development of endocarditis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Increased cardiac output:
While cardiac output is an important factor in shock management, the primary goal of nursing care is not specifically to increase cardiac output. Shock typically involves inadequate tissue perfusion, which may be caused by a variety of factors including low cardiac output, vasodilation, or fluid imbalance. The focus of nursing care is to restore adequate perfusion to tissues, which may involve improving cardiac output as part of a larger therapeutic strategy.
B) Inadequate tissue perfusion:
The primary goal in the treatment of shock is to restore adequate tissue perfusion, as shock is defined by a failure of the circulatory system to supply sufficient oxygen and nutrients to the body's tissues and organs. Inadequate tissue perfusion can lead to organ dysfunction and, if not addressed, can result in organ failure and death. Nursing interventions are aimed at improving perfusion through fluid resuscitation, vasoactive medications, and other strategies to ensure that oxygen and nutrients are delivered to vital organs.
C) Fluid overload or deficit:
Managing fluid status is crucial in shock, as fluid imbalance (either overload or deficit) can exacerbate the condition. However, fluid overload or deficit is not the primary focus; rather, it is one aspect of managing inadequate tissue perfusion. For example, in hypovolemic shock, the nurse would manage fluid deficit, while in cardiogenic shock, the focus would be on optimizing fluid balance without causing overload.
D) Vasoconstriction of vasculature:
While vasoconstriction can be a compensatory mechanism in certain types of shock (e.g., hypovolemic shock), the primary goal is not to induce vasoconstriction per se. In some cases, vasodilation may occur (as in septic shock), and vasoconstriction could be harmful. The goal is to optimize the vascular tone and perfusion, which may involve vasodilation or vasoconstriction depending on the type of shock.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Glasgow Coma Scale:
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a standardized neurological assessment tool used to assess a patient's level of consciousness based on three criteria: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Each of these categories is scored, and the total score helps to determine the depth of the patient's consciousness. The GCS is commonly used to monitor changes in a patient's neurological status, especially after trauma, stroke, or other conditions that may impair brain function.
B) NIH Stroke Scale:
The NIH Stroke Scale (NIHSS) is used to assess the severity of stroke symptoms and includes measures such as facial droop, arm and leg motor function, speech, and language abilities. It is used specifically to evaluate stroke symptoms and is not designed for the rapid assessment of general consciousness like the Glasgow Coma Scale.
C) Romberg Test:
The Romberg Test is a test of balance that is performed by having the patient stand with their feet together, eyes closed, and observing for any swaying or loss of balance. It is used to evaluate proprioception and cerebellar function, not to assess the level of consciousness.
D) Mini Mental Status Exam:
The Mini-Mental Status Exam (MMSE) is a brief cognitive screening tool that assesses aspects of cognitive function such as orientation, attention, memory, language, and visuospatial skills. While the MMSE can provide insight into cognitive function, it does not focus on the specific assessment of consciousness level (eye opening, verbal response, motor response) as the GCS does.
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