The nurse is caring for a client who is discharged with a prescription for amlodipine. The client should be instructed to self-monitor for:
A decrease in urination
An increase in lower extremity edema
Tachycardia during exercise
An increase in bowel motility
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: This is not a correct answer. A decrease in urination is not a common side effect of amlodipine. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that lowers the blood pressure and relaxes the blood vessels. Amlodipine does not affect the kidney function or the urine output, unless there is an underlying renal problem or a drug interaction. The client should monitor their urination, but not expect a decrease.
Choice B reason: This is the correct answer. An increase in lower extremity edema is a common side effect of amlodipine. Amlodipine can cause fluid retention and swelling in the legs, ankles, or feet. This is due to the dilation of the blood vessels and the leakage of fluid into the tissues. The client should monitor their weight and the size of their lower extremities, and report any significant changes to their health care provider. The client may also elevate their legs, wear compression stockings, or take diuretics to reduce the edema.
Choice C reason: This is not a correct answer. Tachycardia during exercise is not a common side effect of amlodipine. Amlodipine can lower the heart rate and the cardiac output, which can reduce the oxygen demand of the heart. Amlodipine does not cause an increase in the heart rate, unless there is an underlying cardiac problem or a drug interaction. The client should monitor their pulse and blood pressure, but not expect tachycardia.
Choice D reason: This is not a correct answer. An increase in bowel motility is not a common side effect of amlodipine. Amlodipine does not affect the gastrointestinal system or the digestion, unless there is an allergic reaction or a drug interaction. Amlodipine can cause some gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea, abdominal pain, or constipation, but not an increase in bowel motility. The client should monitor their bowel movements, but not expect an increase.
Choice A reason: This is not a correct answer. A decrease in urination is not a common side effect of amlodipine. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that lowers the blood pressure and relaxes the blood vessels. Amlodipine does not affect the kidney function or the urine output, unless there is an underlying renal problem or a drug interaction. The client should monitor their urination, but not expect a decrease.
Choice B reason: This is the correct answer. An increase in lower extremity edema is a common side effect of amlodipine. Amlodipine can cause fluid retention and swelling in the legs, ankles, or feet. This is due to the dilation of the blood vessels and the leakage of fluid into the tissues. The client should monitor their weight and the size of their lower extremities, and report any significant changes to their health care provider. The client may also elevate their legs, wear compression stockings, or take diuretics to reduce the edema.
Choice C reason: This is not a correct answer. Tachycardia during exercise is not a common side effect of amlodipine. Amlodipine can lower the heart rate and the cardiac output, which can reduce the oxygen demand of the heart. Amlodipine does not cause an increase in the heart rate, unless there is an underlying cardiac problem or a drug interaction. The client should monitor their pulse and blood pressure, but not expect tachycardia.
Choice D reason: This is not a correct answer. An increase in bowel motility is not a common side effect of amlodipine. Amlodipine does not affect the gastrointestinal system or the digestion, unless there is an allergic reaction or a drug interaction. Amlodipine can cause some gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea, abdominal pain, or constipation, but not an increase in bowel motility. The client should monitor their bowel movements, but not expect an increase.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect. Assessing the apical pulse is not enough to determine if the client is safe to receive digoxin. The client's digoxin level is already above the therapeutic range of 0.5 to 2 ng/mL¹² and giving another dose could increase the risk of toxicity and arrhythmias.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect. Administering 0.25 mcg of digoxin and potassium 20 mEq IV is not appropriate for this client. The client does not need more digoxin or potassium, as both could worsen the client's condition. Potassium levels should be monitored closely in clients taking digoxin, as low or high levels can affect the drug's action and toxicity³.
Choice C reason: This is correct. Withholding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider of the digoxin level is the most appropriate action for this client. The client's digoxin level is dangerously high and could cause serious adverse effects such as nausea, vomiting, vision changes, bradycardia, and cardiac arrest³. The healthcare provider may order to stop digoxin temporarily, adjust the dose, or prescribe an antidote such as digoxin immune fab⁴.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect. Administering the digoxin with a potassium supplement is not advisable for this client. The client's digoxin level is already too high and adding potassium could increase the risk of hyperkalemia, which can impair the heart's electrical activity and lead to cardiac arrest³. Potassium supplements should only be given to clients with digoxin-induced hypokalemia, and only under the supervision of the healthcare provider³..
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Cucumbers are not a good source of iron for the client with iron-deficiency anemia. Iron-deficiency anemia is a condition where the body does not have enough iron to produce hemoglobin, the protein that carries oxygen in the red blood cells. Cucumbers are mostly water and have very little iron content. The client should eat foods that are rich in iron, such as meat, poultry, fish, eggs, beans, and leafy green vegetables.
Choice B reason: Bran is not a good source of iron for the client with iron-deficiency anemia. Bran is the outer layer of cereal grains that contains fiber and some minerals, but not much iron. Bran can also interfere with the absorption of iron from other foods by binding to it and preventing it from entering the bloodstream. The client should avoid eating bran or other foods that contain phytates, oxalates, or tannins, which can reduce the bioavailability of iron.
Choice C reason: Celery is not a good source of iron for the client with iron-deficiency anemia. Celery is a low-calorie vegetable that has some vitamins and minerals, but very little iron. Celery also has a high water content and can fill up the stomach without providing much nutrition. The client should eat foods that are high in iron, such as meat, poultry, fish, eggs, beans, and leafy green vegetables.
Choice D reason: This is the correct answer. Spinach is a good source of iron for the client with iron-deficiency anemia. Spinach is a leafy green vegetable that has a high iron content and can help increase the hemoglobin level and the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Spinach also has other nutrients, such as vitamin C, folate, and antioxidants, that can benefit the health of the client. The client should eat spinach and other foods that are high in iron, such as meat, poultry, fish, eggs, beans, and leafy green vegetables.
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